Sarkari Niyukti

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February 11, 2017

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTION USEFUL FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATION - TEST 11


1.      The minimum amount of wage for contract worker has been increased to
(1)  12,000/pm
(2)  10,000/pm

(3)   15000/pm
(4)   20,000/pm
2.     which state has mandated minimum eligibility for contesting election
(1) Haryana
             (2)  bihar
(3) uttar Pradesh      (4) maharashtra
3.     The state where a deadlock over floor test happened which finally ended with the revocation
of courts judgment
(1) goa                   (2) Haryana
(3) uttarakhand        (4) Andhra Pradesh
4.     the water film festival was inaugurated in which city that   aims for cleaning of Ganga ?
(1) Kanpur
              (2) varanashi
(3) patna                 (4) new delhi
5.     which nation has been recently inducted with IMF and world bank ?
(1) Kosovo
              (2)    Vatican city
(3) Nauru                (4)  South Sudan
6.     The term DIPAM is related with
(1)   Department of Indian government
(2)   Scheme for women
(3)   Payment bank
(4)   Scheme for skill development
7.     who is the director general of WTO ?
(1) Margaret thatcher     (2) Roberto azevedo
(3) teressa ray              (4)   raghuram rajan
8.     Which government has recommended for 10 % reservation for general class in govt jobs.
(1) Maharashtra
       (2) bihar
(3) goa                   (4)  gujrat

9. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian
Constitution?
(1) British Constitution     (2) Government of India Act, 1935
(3) US Constitution        (4)     Charter Act of 1833
10.   Who is the cultural minister of india recently in news ?
(1)    prakash jaberkar
        (2)   Sushma swaraj
(3) dhramendra pradhan (4)   Mahesh sharma
11.   Operation   sulaimani   launched in kerala is related with
(1) Poverty eradication      (2) health
(3) skill development         (4)   immunization
12.   which state in India is the first state prohibiting   liquor in all forms
(1) gujrat
                (2) kerala
(3) Nagaland           (4)  bihar
13.   shimahast   kumbh mela is related with which state   of India
(1) maharashtra
       (2) uttrakhanad
(3) UP                    (4) MP
14.   Which international airport is planning to installed largest wooden CHARKHA in the world
?
(1) patna                 (2) kolkata
(3) gandhinagar       (4) ahamedabad
15.   Which continent has recorded zero case of malaria and declared itself free?
(1) asia
                   (2) Africa
(3) australlia           (4) Europe
16.   NIRF ranking is related with which sector?
(1) Poverty
             (2) education
(3) health                (4) ease of doing business
17.   Blue box and Green box is related with
(1) Modified seeds        (2) new discoveries in quantam physics
(3) space shuttles         (4) WTO subsidy mechanism

18.   GRAM UDAY   TO BHARAT UDAY progarmme is related with
(1) scheme for skill development
         (2) education
(3) panchayti raj institution      (4) health services
19.   who is the head of committee regulating advertisement related guidelines ?
(1) P N bhagwati
      (2) B B Tondon
(3) R M lodha          (4)  Bibek Debroy
20.    Which is equivalent global positioning system of India like GPS ?
(1)  BUUVAN
(2)  dhruv
(3)  Galileo
(4)    IRNSS
21.   The chief minister of a state in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if
(1)   he himself is a candidate
(2)   he   is   yet   to   prove   his   majority   in   the   floor   of   the   LOWER   HOUSE   of   the   state legislature
(3)   he is a member of the Upper House of the state legislature
(4)   he is a caretaker Chief Minister
22.   Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation & the American
Federation?
(1)  A single citizenship
(2)   Three lists in the constitution
(3)   Dual judiciar
(4)   A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution
23.   Which of the following is in the Concurrent     list in the Constitution of India?
(1)   Population control & family planning
(2)   Public health & sanitation
(3)   Capitation taxes
(4)   Treasure trove
24.   Which of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court & the Supreme
Court?
(1)   Disputes between the centre & the States
(2)   Disputes between the States inter se
(3)   Protection of the fundamental rights
(4)   Protection Against the violation of the Constitution

25.   The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in
(1)   kerala
(2)   jammu & kashmir
(3)   west Bengal
(4)   Tamil Nadu
26.   Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the union & collected & appropriated by the
states?
(1)  Stamp duties
(2)  Passenger & goods tax
(3)  Estate Duty
(4)  Taxes on Newspapers
27.   Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
(1)  A written & rigidnConstitution
(2)  An independent judiciary
(3)  Visiting of residuary powers with the centre
(4)  Distribution of powers between the centre & the States
28.   The Dinesh Goshwami Committee was concerned with
(1)  de-nationalisation of banks
(2)  electoral reforms
(3)  steps to put down insurgency in the north east
(4)  the problem of the chakmas
29.   If in an election to a state legislature Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that
(1)  the polling was very poor
(2)  the election was for a multi-member constituency
(3)  the elected candidates victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(4)  a very large no. of candidates contested the election
30.   Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha    &
the Rajya Sabha?
(1)  Elected members of the Lower house of the parliament
(2)  Elected members of the Upper house of the parliament
(3)  Elected members of the Upper house of the State Legislature
(4)  Elected members of the Lower house of the State Legislature
31.   In the interim government formed in 1946 the Vice-President of the Executive Council was
(1)  Jawaharlal Nehru
(2)  Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(3)  C. Rajagopalachari
(4)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad

32.   The 1st attempt to introduce a representative & popular element in the Governance of India
was made through
(1)  Indian Council Act,1861
(2)  Indian Council Act,1892
(3)  Indian Council Act, 1909
(4)  Government of India Act, 1919
33.   Which of the following Acts introduced communal electorate in India?
(1)  Indian Council Act,1861
(2)  Indian Council Act,1892
(3)  Indian Council Act, 1909
(4)  Government of India Act, 1935
34.   By virtue of which Act, Dyrachy was introduced in India?
(1)  Indian Council Act, 1909
(2)  Government of India Act, 1919
(3)  Government of India Act, 1935
(4)  Indian independence Act, 1947
35.   Through which one of the following were commercial activities of the East India Company
finally put to an end?
(1)   The charter Act of    1793
(2)   The charter Act of    1813
(3)   The charter Act of    1833
(4)   The charter Act of    1853
36.   Which of the following vested the Secretary of State for India with supreme control over the
Government of India?
(1)  Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(2)  Government of India Act, 1858
(3)  Indian Council Act, 1861
(4)  Morley-Minto reforms,1909
37.   The supreme court was set up by the
(1)  Regulating Act, 1773
(2)  Pitt’s India Act. 1784
(3)  Charter Act, 1813
(4)  Charter Act, 1833
38.   The cabinet mission plan for India envisaged
(1) Federation
         (2) Confederation
(3)  Unitary of of Government
(4)  Union Of States

39.   The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the 1st  time conceded by the
British Government, though indirectly & with reservation in the
(1) Cripps Proposals (2) August Offer
(3)  Cabinet mission plan
(4)  Act of 1935
40.   Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(1)  Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(2)  Acharya JB Kripalani
(3)  Jay Prakash Narayan
(4)  KM Munshi
41.   To produce the constitution, the Constituent Assembly took
(1)  2 years 11 months & 18 days
(2)  3 years 10 months & 10 days
(3)  4 years 11 months & 11 days
(4)  5 years 5 months 5 days
42.   Who   was    the   Chairman   of    the   Provincial   Constitution   Committee    of    the    Constituent
Assembly?
(1)  Dr. BR Ambedkar
(2)  Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
(3)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(4)  Sardar Patel
43.   In the federation under the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
(1)  Federal Legislature
(2)  Provincial Legislature
(3)  Governor-General
(4)  Provincial Governor
44.   In which year did the parliament adopt Indian Constitution
(1) 1947
                 (2) 1948
(3) 1950                 (4) 1952
45.   The   objective   resolution,   which   outlined   the   philosophy   of   the   indian   constitution,   was
moved in the constituent assembly by
(1)  Dr. S Radhakrishnan
(2)  Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(3)  Jawahar Lal Nehru
(4)  BR Ambedkar
46.   Which of the following contries enjoys a federal form of Government?
(1) China
                (2) USA
(3) Cuba                 (4) Belgium

47.   Indian Constituation is
(1) truly federal       (2) truly unitary
(3)  federal with unitary bias
(4)  federal with bias against the states
48.   Which of the following features & their source is wrongly matched?
(1)  Judicial Review       : British Practice
(2)  Concurrent List       : Australian
Constitution
(3) Directive Principals       : Irish
Constitution
(4) Fundamental Rights     : US Constitution
49.   Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
(1) Part I
                 (2) Part II
(3) Part III               (4) Part IV
50.   The tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with
(1)  Anti-defection Legislation
(2)  Panchayati Raj
(3)  Land reforms
(4)  Distribution of powers between the Union & States
51.   The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution Of India Contains provisions regarding
(1)  Scheduled Languages
(2)  Oaths & Affirmations
(3)  Administration of Tribal Areas
(4)  Union, State Concurrent Lists
52.   Which one of the following correctly explains the meaning of ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble?
(1)  Nationalisation of all means of production
(2)  Abolition of private property
(3)  Socialistic pattern of society
(4)  Eradication of exploitation & vested interest
53.   Who said Preamble is the keynote to the Constitution?
(1) Ernest Barker
     (2) KM Munshi
(3) BR Ambedkar     (4) DD Basu
54.   The  following  States  were  created  after  1960.  Arrange  them  in  ascending  Chronological
order of their formation & choose your answer from the given codes
(a)  Haryana            (c) Sikkim
(c)  Nagaland          (d) Meghalaya
Codes
(1) a,b,c,d               (B) b,c,d,a
(3) c,a,d,b               (d) b,d,a,c

55.   Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(1)  Puducherry :        1968
(2)  Sikkim       :        1975
(3)  Mizoram        :        1987
(4)  Trupura     :     1972
56.   Who can aquire the Indian Citizenship by the naturalization?
(1) Foreigners
         (2) NRI
(3) Overseas Indians (4) All of the above \57. A person will loose his citizenship, if
(1)  he voluntarily surrenders his citizenship
(2)  the government withdraws his citizenship
(3)  he voluntarily accept citizenship of another country
(4)  All of the Above
58.   How many fundamental rights are enjoyed by the Indians
(1) Nine
                 (2) Ten
(3) Seven                (4) Six
59.   At present In the constitution of India Right to Property is
(1)  Fundamental Right
(2)  Legal Right
(3)  Moral Right
(4)  None of the Above
60.   Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the
Indian citizens?
(1)  Supreme court
(2)  parliament
(3)  President on the advice of the Council of ministers
(4)  None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution
61.   Which of the following are not among the rights provided only to the citizens of India?
(1)   Right against Discrimination
(2)   Right to Vote
(3)   Right to equality
(4)   Right to hold public office
62.   The chief minister of a state in India is NOT eligible to vote in the presidential election if
(1)   he himself is a candidate
(2)   ) he is yet to prove majority on the floor of theLower house of the state legislature
(3)   he is a member of the upper House of the state Legislature
(4)   he is a caretaker Chief Minister

63.    Which  one  of  the  following  of  the  feature  common  to  both  the  indian  Federation  &  the American federation?
(1)   A single citizenship
(2)   Three lists in the Constitution
(3)   Dual judiciary
(4)   A federal supereme court to interpret the constitution
64.  Which one of the following is in the concurrent list in the constitution of India
(1) Population control & family planning                  (2)      Public health & sanitation
(3) Capitation taxes
(4) Treasure trove
65.  Which   one   of   the   following   comes   under   the   jurisdiction   of   both   the   high   court   &   the
supreme   court?
(1)   Disputes between the centre & the states
(2)   Disputes between the States inter se
(3)   Protection of the fundamental rights          (4)      Protection    against    the    violation    of the Constitution
66.  The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in
(1)   kerala
(2)   Jammu & kashmir
(3)  West Bengal
(4)  Tmil Nadu
67.  Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union & collected & appropriated by the
states?
(1)   Stamp Duties
(2)   Passenger & Good tax
(3)   Estate duty
(4)   taxes on newspapers
68.  Which one of the following determines that the Indian constitution is federal?
(1) A written & rigid Constitution
        (2)      An independent Judiciary
(3)   Vesting of residuary powers with the centre
(4)   Distribution of powers between the centre & the states

69.   The Dinesh goswami committee was concerned with
(1)   de nationalization of banks
(2)   electoral reforms
(3)   step to put down insurgency in the north east
(4)   the problem of the chakmas
70.   which of the following political parties is/are national politics parties?
(1)  Muslim league
(2)  Revolutionary Socialist Party
(3)  All India Forward Block
(4)  ) Peasent & workers party of India
71.   If in a election to a state Legislative    Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses
his
  deposit, it means that
(1)  the polling was very poor
(2)  the election was for a multi-member constituency
(3)  the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(4)  a very large no. of candidates contested the election
72.   who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha & the
Rajya Sabha?
(1)   elected house of the Lower House of the Parliament
(2)   elected house of the   Upper House of the Parliament
(3)   elected house of the Upper House of the Legislature
(4)   elected house of the Lower House of the Legislature
73.   In the interim government formed in 1946 the vice-president of the executive council was
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
              (2)       Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(3) C. Rajagopalachari             (4)      Dr. Rajendra Prasad
74.   Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc.    (Article 15 of the constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under
(1) the Right to freedom of Religion     (2)      the right against Exploitation
(3) the Cultural & Educational rights    (4)      the right to Eqality
75.   Agricultural income tax is assigned to the state governments by
(1) the finance commisssion     (2)      the National Development council
(3) the inter-state council         (4)      the constitution of india
76.   The power of the Supreme court of India to decide disputes between the Centre & the states
falls under its
(1) advisory jurisdiction (2)      appellate jurisdiction
(3) original jurisdiction     (4)     constitutional jurisdiction

77.   Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the president of
india but does not form part of forum for his impeachment?
(1)   Lok Sabha
(2)   Rajya Sabha
(3)   State Legislative Councils
(4)   State Legislative Assemblies
78. “state for the purpose of fundamental right includes
(1) government and parliammnt of india (2)govt and legislative assembly of india (3) all government authorities (4)all of the above
79.     Fundamental rights are available against (1) only states both     (2) states and citizens (3) only citizens                             (4) none of theses
80.     Right to property was removed as a fundamental right by (1) 39th amendment     (2) 44th amendment
(3) 42nd amendment      (4) 40th amendment
81. Which of the following is not included in the right of freedom
(1) freedom of speech       (2) freedom of press
(3) right of residence (4) right of holding religious outfit
82.   The purpose of including of DPSP in the constitution is to establish
(1) Political democracy   (2)social democracy
(3) gandhian democracy (4)social and economic democracy
83.   the provision of DPSP has been taken by the constitution of
(1) USA
                 (2) USSR
(3) UK                   (4) IRELAND
84.   which of the following appointment is not made by the president
(1) speaker of lok sabha (2) chief justice of india
(3) chief justice of air staff                 (4) chief of army
85.   the president submits its resignation to
(1) chief justice of india (2) seaker of lok sabha
(3) vice president
         (4) prime minister

86. who was the president of india when india proclaimed ememrgency in 1975
(1) VV GIRI                 (2) gaini jail singh
(3) fakhruddin ali ahamd (4) Shankar dayal sharma
87.   Who hold the power of nomination of anglo indian community in legislature
(1) Minority commission
                   (2) president of india
(3) Prime minister        (4) vice president
88.   the power of making treaties with other countries lies with
(1) parliament
         (2)  prime minister of india
(3) president           (4)  boundary commission
89.   The council of ministers is collectively responsible to
(1) prime minister        (2) lok sabha
(3) rajya sabha             (4) president
90.   the union ministers hold office during the pleasure of
(1) the presdent
            (2) the prime minister
(3) chief justice            (4) speaker of lok sabha
91.   who of the following prime minister resigned before facing a vote of no confidence in the
lok shabha
(1) chnadra sekhar                  (2) morarji desai
(3) chaudhary charan singh       (4)V P singh
92.   the council of minister does not include
(1) cabinet minister
(2) ministers of state
(3)  ministers without portfolio
(4)  cabinet secretary
93.   under the administration of which of the following is the department of atomic energy
(1) prime minister office (2) cabinet secretary
(3)   ministry of power   (4) ministry of science and technology
94.   Which    amendment    of    constitution    made    it    obligatory   president    to    exercise    power    in
accordance of council of ministers
(1) 42nd amendment    (2) 47th amendment (3) 43rd amendment     (4) 44th amendment

95.   the speaker from the house can be removed by the office by
(1) no confidence motion
(2)simple majority
(3) 2/3 rd majority of the total member
(4) special majority
96.   In the rajya sabha the seats are distributed on the basis of
(1) in accordance with the population
(2) on the basis of economic capability
(3)   both
(4)   Area
97.   Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?
(1) Britain
              (2) Belgium
(3) france               (4) Switzerland
98.   which nonmember can participate in the business of either house of parliament ?
(1) vice president
     (2) solicitor general
(3) Attorney general (4) chief justice of India
100. who is considered as the guardian of the public purse ?
(1) Parliament                       (2) comptroller and auditor general
(3) public account committee    (4) president
101. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the parliament for its approval within ?
(1) 1 month
             (2) 2 month
(3) 6 month             (4) 1 year
102. The Indian parliament consist of
(1) lok sabha only    (2) lok sabha and president only
(3) rajya sabha only   (4) lok sabha, rajya sabha and president only
103. what can be the maximum interval between two session of parliament?
(1) 3 month
             (2) 6 month
(3) 4 month             (4) 9 month
104. Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the parliament?
(1) attorney general
                (2)   chief justice of india
(3) chief election commissioner (4) comptroller and audit general

105. which of the following has the power of creating all india services
(1) lok sabha
                         (2)rajya sabha
(3) lok sabha and president only (4) parliament
106. Which department is responsible for preparation of union budget to the parliament?
(1) department of revenue
                  (2) department of economic affair
(3) department of financial services     (4) department of expenditure
107. Which of the following bill must be passed with special majority in both the houses?
(1) ordinary bill
       (2) money bill
(3) finance bill        (4)  constitutional amendment bill
108. The memebers of the rajya sabha are dierectly
(1) elected indirectly               (2) mostly nominated
(3) dierectly as well as indirectly         (4) all nominated
109. who is competetant to dillolve the arjya sabha? (1) chairmant rajya sabha              (2) president (3) vice president          (4)  none of the above
110. rajya sabha enjoys more power related with (1) Money bill              (2) ordinary bill
(3) finace bill          (4)  creation of all india services
111.The Supreme Court is a court of record. This means
1.  its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory.
2.  it can punish for contempt of Supreme court.
3.  it can punish for contempt of High court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1)  1 only
2)  1 and 2 only
3)  2 only
4)  1, 2 and 3
112.In the order of precedence, the speaker has an equal rank to
a)  Vice-President
b) Prime Minister
c)  Cabinet Ministers
d) Chief Justice of India.

113.Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then
a)  a joint sitting is called.
b) the bill ends and becomes dead
c)  legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time.
d) none of the above\
114.Consider the following statements about National emergency:
1.  A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month.
2.  The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
115.With reference to recognized political party, consider the following statements:
1.  The status is contingent on the performance of a party.
2.  All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
116.The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on
1.  public order
2.  police
3.  land
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) none

117.Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?
1.  President
2.  CAG
3.  Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
118.On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?
a)  President
b) High Court
c)  Supreme Court
d) Election Commission of India
119.Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory development process?
1.  State
2.  NGOs
3.  Pressure groups
4.  Cooperatives
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c)  2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
120.With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements:
1.  Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force.
2.  Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
121. The collegiums system of appointment of judges has been criticized on the basis that it
leads to
1. undue interference by executive.

2.  submissiveness of puisne judges.
3.  destruction of judicial independence
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
122.The major benefits of federalism is/are
1.  it helps in quick decision making.
2.  it gives voice to regional interests.
3.  it creates a network of checks and balances. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
123.The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. This can be seen from
1.  rigidity of constitution
2.  single citizenship
3.  all-India services
4.  supremacy of constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
124.With reference to Armed Forces Special powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’?
1.  Governor
2.  Chief Minister
3.  Central Government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

125.The centre and states have their own respective sources of revenues. Which of the following is levied by the centre ?
1.  professional tax
2.  corporation tax
3.  excise duty on liquor
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
126.Consider the following statements about private members :
1.  MPs who are not ministers are called private members.
2.  Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
127.Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax?
1.  increase it
2.  decrease it
3.  abolish it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
128.Which among the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice?
1.  Question hour
2.  Zero hour
3.  Half-an-hour discussion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
129.Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in 1976. Which among these are FDs? 1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest

2.  to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country
3.  to safeguard public property and to abjure violence Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c)  3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
130.Among the following, which is/are a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) ?
1.  Gram Nyayalaya
2.  Fast Track Courts
3.  Lok Adalats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
131. Suppose Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative council which
rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?
a)  a joint sitting is called for by the Governor.
b) the bill ends and become dead.
c)  legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council.
d) (a) or (c) depending on the type of bill.
132. The original jurisdiction of the High Court includes:
1.  disputes related to the election of MPs
2.  disputes related to the election of MLAs
3.  cases related to murder
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
133.  In India, the council of ministers have:
1.  Individual responsibility
2.  legal responsibility
3.  collective responsibility
Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only
c)  3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
134.  The Union executive of India consists of :
1.  President
2.  Vice-President
3.  Prime Minister
4.  Council of Ministers
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c)  2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
135. With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider the
following statements :
1.  they can be removed for misbehaviour.
2.  they can be removed only by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
136. Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are constitutional?
1.  River water tribunals
2.  Inter-State Councils
3.  Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) None
137. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by
a)  Government via a resolution
b) President
c)  Parliament
d) (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension.

138. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following statements :
1.  As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the government.
2.  The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
139. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?
1.  Special officer for linguistic minorities
2.  Advocate general
3.  Solicitor general
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
140. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following
statements :
1.  Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.
2.  The chairman can be reappointed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a)  1 only
b) 2 only
c)  Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
141. The Indian constitution has defined which of the following?
1.  Scheduled Castes
2.  Scheduled Tribes
3.  Anglo-Indians
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
142. The powers of Attorney General of India includes

1.  right to speak in Parliament
2.  right to vote in Parliament
3.  right to become member of Parliamentary committees Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)  1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c)  only 1
d) 1,2 and 3
143. Which of the following actions can the President perform on a money bill presented to
him/her ?
1.  pass it
2.  reject it
3.  return it once, but if it comes bacl he/she has to give assent
4.  pocket veto it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 4 only
144.  Who among the following participates in the election of Vice-President ?
1.  elected MPs
2.  nominated MPs
3.  elected MLAS
4.  nominated MLAs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c)  1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only
145.  Parliamentary authorization for payments is required for :
1.  Public account of India
2.  Consolidated fund of India
3.  Contingency Fund of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only

c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
146. Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax?
1.  increase it
2.  decrease it
3.  abolish it
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
147.  Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?
1.  President
2.  CAG
3.  Supreme court Judge
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c)  3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
148. On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification
under Representation of People
’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?
a)  President
b) High Court
c)  Supreme Court
d) Election Commission of India
149. The central government has decided to move the following bills in the coming session of
parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?
1.  a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan
2.  a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.
3.  a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

150. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is because of
1.  institution of CAG as a supreme auditor
2.  Judicial review
3.  Federal system of government
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a)  1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c)  2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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