GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTION USEFUL FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATION

1. The minimum amount of wage for contract worker has been increased to

(1) 12,000/pm

(2) 10,000/pm

(3) 15000/pm

(4) 20,000/pm

2. which state has mandated minimum eligibility for contesting election
(1) Haryana (2) bihar

(3) uttar Pradesh (4) maharashtra

3. The state where a deadlock over floor test happened which finally ended with the revocation
of courts judgment

(1) goa (2) Haryana

(3) uttarakhand (4) Andhra Pradesh

4. the water film festival was inaugurated in which city that aims for cleaning of Ganga ?
(1) Kanpur (2) varanashi

(3) patna (4) new delhi

5. which nation has been recently inducted with IMF and world bank ?
(1) Kosovo (2) Vatican city

(3) Nauru (4) South Sudan

6. The term DIPAM is related with

(1) Department of Indian government

(2) Scheme for women

(3) Payment bank

(4) Scheme for skill development

7. who is the director general of WTO ?

(1) Margaret thatcher (2) Roberto azevedo

(3) teressa ray (4) raghuram rajan

8. Which government has recommended for 10 % reservation for general class in govt jobs.
(1) Maharashtra (2) bihar

(3) goa (4) gujrat

9. Which of the following exercised the most profound influence in framing the Indian
Constitution?

(1) British Constitution (2) Government of India Act, 1935
(3) US Constitution (4) Charter Act of 1833

10. Who is the cultural minister of india recently in news ?
(1) prakash jaberkar (2) Sushma swaraj

(3) dhramendra pradhan (4) Mahesh sharma

11. Operation sulaimani launched in kerala is related with
(1) Poverty eradication (2) health

(3) skill development (4) immunization

12. which state in India is the first state prohibiting liquor in all forms
(1) gujrat (2) kerala

(3) Nagaland (4) bihar

13. shimahast kumbh mela is related with which state of India
(1) maharashtra (2) uttrakhanad

(3) UP (4) MP

14. Which international airport is planning to installed largest wooden CHARKHA in the world
?

(1) patna (2) kolkata

(3) gandhinagar (4) ahamedabad

15. Which continent has recorded zero case of malaria and declared itself free?
(1) asia (2) Africa

(3) australlia (4) Europe

16. NIRF ranking is related with which sector?
(1) Poverty (2) education

(3) health (4) ease of doing business

17. Blue box and Green box is related with

(1) Modified seeds (2) new discoveries in quantam physics

(3) space shuttles (4) WTO subsidy mechanism

18. GRAM UDAY TO BHARAT UDAY progarmme is related with
(1) scheme for skill development (2) education

(3) panchayti raj institution (4) health services

19. who is the head of committee regulating advertisement related guidelines ?
(1) P N bhagwati (2) B B Tondon

(3) R M lodha (4) Bibek Debroy

20. Which is equivalent global positioning system of India like GPS ?

(1) BUUVAN

(2) dhruv

(3) Galileo

(4) IRNSS

21. The chief minister of a state in India is NOT eligible to vote in the Presidential election if

(1) he himself is a candidate

(2) he is yet to prove his majority in the floor of the LOWER HOUSE of the state legislature

(3) he is a member of the Upper House of the state legislature

(4) he is a caretaker Chief Minister

22. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation & the American
Federation?

(1) A single citizenship

(2) Three lists in the constitution

(3) Dual judiciar

(4) A federal supreme court to interpret the Constitution

23. Which of the following is in the Concurrent list in the Constitution of India?

(1) Population control & family planning

(2) Public health & sanitation

(3) Capitation taxes

(4) Treasure trove

24. Which of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court & the Supreme
Court?

(1) Disputes between the centre & the States

(2) Disputes between the States inter se

(3) Protection of the fundamental rights

(4) Protection Against the violation of the Constitution

25. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in

(1) kerala

(2) jammu & kashmir

(3) west Bengal

(4) Tamil Nadu

26. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the union & collected & appropriated by the
states?

(1) Stamp duties

(2) Passenger & goods tax

(3) Estate Duty

(4) Taxes on Newspapers

27. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

(1) A written & rigidnConstitution

(2) An independent judiciary

(3) Visiting of residuary powers with the centre

(4) Distribution of powers between the centre & the States

28. The Dinesh Goshwami Committee was concerned with

(1) de-nationalisation of banks

(2) electoral reforms

(3) steps to put down insurgency in the north east

(4) the problem of the chakmas

29. If in an election to a state legislature Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that

(1) the polling was very poor

(2) the election was for a multi-member constituency

(3) the elected candidates victory over his nearest rival was very marginal

(4) a very large no. of candidates contested the election

30. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha &
the Rajya Sabha?

(1) Elected members of the Lower house of the parliament

(2) Elected members of the Upper house of the parliament

(3) Elected members of the Upper house of the State Legislature

(4) Elected members of the Lower house of the State Legislature

31. In the interim government formed in 1946 the Vice-President of the Executive Council was

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru

(2) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(3) C. Rajagopalachari

(4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

32. The 1^st attempt to introduce a representative & popular element in the Governance of India
was made through

(1) Indian Council Act,1861

(2) Indian Council Act,1892

(3) Indian Council Act, 1909

(4) Government of India Act, 1919

33. Which of the following Acts introduced communal electorate in India?

(1) Indian Council Act,1861

(2) Indian Council Act,1892

(3) Indian Council Act, 1909

(4) Government of India Act, 1935

34. By virtue of which Act, Dyrachy was introduced in India?

(1) Indian Council Act, 1909

(2) Government of India Act, 1919

(3) Government of India Act, 1935

(4) Indian independence Act, 1947

35. Through which one of the following were commercial activities of the East India Company
finally put to an end?

(1) The charter Act of 1793

(2) The charter Act of 1813

(3) The charter Act of 1833

(4) The charter Act of 1853

36. Which of the following vested the Secretary of State for India with supreme control over the
Government of India?

(1) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(2) Government of India Act, 1858

(3) Indian Council Act, 1861

(4) Morley-Minto reforms,1909

37. The supreme court was set up by the

(1) Regulating Act, 1773

(2) Pitt’s India Act. 1784

(3) Charter Act, 1813

(4) Charter Act, 1833

38. The cabinet mission plan for India envisaged
(1) Federation (2) Confederation

(3) Unitary of of Government

(4) Union Of States

39. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the 1^st time conceded by the
British Government, though indirectly & with reservation in the

(1) Cripps Proposals (2) August Offer

(3) Cabinet mission plan

(4) Act of 1935

40. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

(1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(2) Acharya JB Kripalani

(3) Jay Prakash Narayan

(4) KM Munshi

41. To produce the constitution, the Constituent Assembly took

(1) 2 years 11 months & 18 days

(2) 3 years 10 months & 10 days

(3) 4 years 11 months & 11 days

(4) 5 years 5 months 5 days

42. Who was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent
Assembly?

(1) Dr. BR Ambedkar

(2) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(4) Sardar Patel

43. In the federation under the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

(1) Federal Legislature

(2) Provincial Legislature

(3) Governor-General

(4) Provincial Governor

44. In which year did the parliament adopt Indian Constitution
(1) 1947 (2) 1948

(3) 1950 (4) 1952

45. The objective resolution, which outlined the philosophy of the indian constitution, was
moved in the constituent assembly by

(1) Dr. S Radhakrishnan

(2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(3) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(4) BR Ambedkar

46. Which of the following contries enjoys a federal form of Government?
(1) China (2) USA

(3) Cuba (4) Belgium

47. Indian Constituation is

(1) truly federal (2) truly unitary

(3) federal with unitary bias

(4) federal with bias against the states

48. Which of the following features & their source is wrongly matched?

(1) Judicial Review : British Practice

(2) Concurrent List : Australian

Constitution

(3) Directive Principals : Irish

Constitution

(4) Fundamental Rights : US Constitution

49. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
(1) Part I (2) Part II

(3) Part III (4) Part IV

50. The tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with

(1) Anti-defection Legislation

(2) Panchayati Raj

(3) Land reforms

(4) Distribution of powers between the Union & States

51. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution Of India Contains provisions regarding

(1) Scheduled Languages

(2) Oaths & Affirmations

(3) Administration of Tribal Areas

(4) Union, State Concurrent Lists

52. Which one of the following correctly explains the meaning of ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble?

(1) Nationalisation of all means of production

(2) Abolition of private property

(3) Socialistic pattern of society

(4) Eradication of exploitation & vested interest

53. Who said Preamble is the keynote to the Constitution?
(1) Ernest Barker (2) KM Munshi

(3) BR Ambedkar (4) DD Basu

54. The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending Chronological
order of their formation & choose your answer from the given codes

(a) Haryana (c) Sikkim

(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya

Codes

(1) a,b,c,d (B) b,c,d,a

(3) c,a,d,b (d) b,d,a,c

55. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Puducherry : 1968

(2) Sikkim : 1975

(3) Mizoram : 1987

(4) Trupura : 1972

56. Who can aquire the Indian Citizenship by the naturalization?
(1) Foreigners (2) NRI

(3) Overseas Indians (4) All of the above \57. A person will loose his citizenship, if

(1) he voluntarily surrenders his citizenship

(2) the government withdraws his citizenship

(3) he voluntarily accept citizenship of another country

(4) All of the Above

58. How many fundamental rights are enjoyed by the Indians
(1) Nine (2) Ten

(3) Seven (4) Six

59. At present In the constitution of India Right to Property is

(1) Fundamental Right

(2) Legal Right

(3) Moral Right

(4) None of the Above

60. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the
Indian citizens?

(1) Supreme court

(2) parliament

(3) President on the advice of the Council of ministers

(4) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution

61. Which of the following are not among the rights provided only to the citizens of India?

(1) Right against Discrimination

(2) Right to Vote

(3) Right to equality

(4) Right to hold public office

62. The chief minister of a state in India is NOT eligible to vote in the presidential election if

(1) he himself is a candidate

(2) ) he is yet to prove majority on the floor of theLower house of the state legislature

(3) he is a member of the upper House of the state Legislature

(4) he is a caretaker Chief Minister

63. Which one of the following of the feature common to both the indian Federation & the American federation?

(1) A single citizenship

(2) Three lists in the Constitution

(3) Dual judiciary

(4) A federal supereme court to interpret the constitution

64. Which one of the following is in the concurrent list in the constitution of India

(1) Population control & family planning (2) Public health & sanitation

(3) Capitation taxes

(4) Treasure trove

65. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the high court & the
supreme court?

(1) Disputes between the centre & the states

(2) Disputes between the States inter se

(3) Protection of the fundamental rights (4) Protection against the violation of the Constitution

66. The Anti-Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in

(1) kerala

(2) Jammu & kashmir

(3) West Bengal

(4) Tmil Nadu

67. Which of the following taxes is/are levied by the Union & collected & appropriated by the
states?

(1) Stamp Duties

(2) Passenger & Good tax

(3) Estate duty

(4) taxes on newspapers

68. Which one of the following determines that the Indian constitution is federal?
(1) A written & rigid Constitution (2) An independent Judiciary

(3) Vesting of residuary powers with the centre

(4) Distribution of powers between the centre & the states

69. The Dinesh goswami committee was concerned with

(1) de nationalization of banks

(2) electoral reforms

(3) step to put down insurgency in the north east

(4) the problem of the chakmas

70. which of the following political parties is/are national politics parties?

(1) Muslim league

(2) Revolutionary Socialist Party

(3) All India Forward Block

(4) ) Peasent & workers party of India

71. If in a election to a state Legislative Assembly the candidate who is declared elected loses
his deposit, it means that

(1) the polling was very poor

(2) the election was for a multi-member constituency

(3) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal

(4) a very large no. of candidates contested the election

72. who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha & the
Rajya Sabha?

(1) elected house of the Lower House of the Parliament

(2) elected house of the Upper House of the Parliament

(3) elected house of the Upper House of the Legislature

(4) elected house of the Lower House of the Legislature

73. In the interim government formed in 1946 the vice-president of the executive council was
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(3) C. Rajagopalachari (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

74. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under

(1) the Right to freedom of Religion (2) the right against Exploitation

(3) the Cultural & Educational rights (4) the right to Eqality

75. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the state governments by

(1) the finance commisssion (2) the National Development council

(3) the inter-state council (4) the constitution of india

76. The power of the Supreme court of India to decide disputes between the Centre & the states
falls under its

(1) advisory jurisdiction (2) appellate jurisdiction

(3) original jurisdiction (4) constitutional jurisdiction

77. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the president of
india but does not form part of forum for his impeachment?

(1) Lok Sabha

(2) Rajya Sabha

(3) State Legislative Councils

(4) State Legislative Assemblies

78. “state for the purpose of fundamental right includes

(1) government and parliammnt of india (2)govt and legislative assembly of india (3) all government authorities (4)all of the above

79. Fundamental rights are available against (1) only states both (2) states and citizens (3) only citizens (4) none of theses

80. Right to property was removed as a fundamental right by (1) 39^th amendment (2) 44^th amendment

(3) 42^nd amendment (4) 40^th amendment

81. Which of the following is not included in the right of freedom

(1) freedom of speech (2) freedom of press

(3) right of residence (4) right of holding religious outfit

82. The purpose of including of DPSP in the constitution is to establish
(1) Political democracy (2)social democracy

(3) gandhian democracy (4)social and economic democracy

83. the provision of DPSP has been taken by the constitution of
(1) USA (2) USSR

(3) UK (4) IRELAND

84. which of the following appointment is not made by the president
(1) speaker of lok sabha (2) chief justice of india

(3) chief justice of air staff (4) chief of army

85. the president submits its resignation to

(1) chief justice of india (2) seaker of lok sabha
(3) vice president (4) prime minister

86. who was the president of india when india proclaimed ememrgency in 1975
(1) VV GIRI (2) gaini jail singh

(3) fakhruddin ali ahamd (4) Shankar dayal sharma

87. Who hold the power of nomination of anglo indian community in legislature
(1) Minority commission (2) president of india

(3) Prime minister (4) vice president

88. the power of making treaties with other countries lies with
(1) parliament (2) prime minister of india

(3) president (4) boundary commission

89. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to
(1) prime minister (2) lok sabha

(3) rajya sabha (4) president

90. the union ministers hold office during the pleasure of
(1) the presdent (2) the prime minister

(3) chief justice (4) speaker of lok sabha

91. who of the following prime minister resigned before facing a vote of no confidence in the
lok shabha

(1) chnadra sekhar (2) morarji desai

(3) chaudhary charan singh (4)V P singh

92. the council of minister does not include

(1) cabinet minister

(2) ministers of state

(3) ministers without portfolio

(4) cabinet secretary

93. under the administration of which of the following is the department of atomic energy
(1) prime minister office (2) cabinet secretary

(3) ministry of power (4) ministry of science and technology

94. Which amendment of constitution made it obligatory president to exercise power in
accordance of council of ministers

(1) 42^nd amendment (2) 47^th amendment (3) 43^rd amendment (4) 44^th amendment

95. the speaker from the house can be removed by the office by
(1) no confidence motion

(2)simple majority

(3) 2/3 rd majority of the total member

(4) special majority

96. In the rajya sabha the seats are distributed on the basis of

(1) in accordance with the population

(2) on the basis of economic capability

(3) both

(4) Area

97. Where was the first parliamentary form of government formed?
(1) Britain (2) Belgium

(3) france (4) Switzerland

98. which nonmember can participate in the business of either house of parliament ?
(1) vice president (2) solicitor general

(3) Attorney general (4) chief justice of India

100. who is considered as the guardian of the public purse ?

(1) Parliament (2) comptroller and auditor general

(3) public account committee (4) president

101. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the parliament for its approval within ?
(1) 1 month (2) 2 month

(3) 6 month (4) 1 year

102. The Indian parliament consist of

(1) lok sabha only (2) lok sabha and president only

(3) rajya sabha only (4) lok sabha, rajya sabha and president only

103. what can be the maximum interval between two session of parliament?
(1) 3 month (2) 6 month

(3) 4 month (4) 9 month

104. Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the parliament?
(1) attorney general (2) chief justice of india

(3) chief election commissioner (4) comptroller and audit general

105. which of the following has the power of creating all india services
(1) lok sabha (2)rajya sabha

(3) lok sabha and president only (4) parliament

106. Which department is responsible for preparation of union budget to the parliament?
(1) department of revenue (2) department of economic affair

(3) department of financial services (4) department of expenditure

107. Which of the following bill must be passed with special majority in both the houses?
(1) ordinary bill (2) money bill

(3) finance bill (4) constitutional amendment bill

108. The memebers of the rajya sabha are dierectly

(1) elected indirectly (2) mostly nominated

(3) dierectly as well as indirectly (4) all nominated

109. who is competetant to dillolve the arjya sabha? (1) chairmant rajya sabha (2) president (3) vice president (4) none of the above

110. rajya sabha enjoys more power related with (1) Money bill (2) ordinary bill

(3) finace bill (4) creation of all india services

111.The Supreme Court is a court of record. This means

1. its judgements are recorded for perpetual memory.

2. it can punish for contempt of Supreme court.

3. it can punish for contempt of High court.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1) 1 only

2) 1 and 2 only

3) 2 only

4) 1, 2 and 3

112.In the order of precedence, the speaker has an equal rank to

a) Vice-President

b) Prime Minister

c) Cabinet Ministers

d) Chief Justice of India.

113.Consider an ordinary bill that originated in the legislative assembly and is sent to the legislative council. If the council rejects the bill then

a) a joint sitting is called.

b) the bill ends and becomes dead

c) legislative assembly passes the bill for the second time.

d) none of the above\

114.Consider the following statements about National emergency:

1. A revocation of emergency by President must be approved by the Parliament within one month.

2. The President must revoke a proclamation of emergency if the Parliament passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

115.With reference to recognized political party, consider the following statements:

1. The status is contingent on the performance of a party.

2. All recognized parties are either a National party or a State party. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

116.The legislative assembly of Delhi can make laws on

1. public order

2. police

3. land

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) none

117.Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?

1. President

2. CAG

3. Supreme court Judge

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

118.On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?

a) President

b) High Court

c) Supreme Court

d) Election Commission of India

119.Which of the following is/are a part of the participatory development process?

1. State

2. NGOs

3. Pressure groups

4. Cooperatives

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1 ,3 and 4 only

c) 2 ,3 and 4 only

d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4

120.With reference to regionalism, consider the following statements:

1. Regionalism is a disintegrating force unlike nationalism which is a unifying force.

2. Regionalism is not conducive with the idea of federalism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

121. The collegiums system of appointment of judges has been criticized on the basis that it

leads to

1. undue interference by executive.

2. submissiveness of puisne judges.

3. destruction of judicial independence

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, and 3

122.The major benefits of federalism is/are

1. it helps in quick decision making.

2. it gives voice to regional interests.

3. it creates a network of checks and balances. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 2 and 3 only

123.The constitution of India establishes a federal system of government. This can be seen from

1. rigidity of constitution

2. single citizenship

3. all-India services

4. supremacy of constitution

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 4 only

124.With reference to Armed Forces Special powers Act (AFSPA), who among the following can declare an area as ‘disturbed area’?

1. Governor

2. Chief Minister

3. Central Government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

125.The centre and states have their own respective sources of revenues. Which of the following is levied by the centre ?

1. professional tax

2. corporation tax

3. excise duty on liquor

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

126.Consider the following statements about private members :

1. MPs who are not ministers are called private members.

2. Private members can introduce a constitutional amendment bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

127.Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax?

1. increase it

2. decrease it

3. abolish it

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

128.Which among the following is an informal device in Indian parliamentary practice?

1. Question hour

2. Zero hour

3. Half-an-hour discussion

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

129.Fundamental Duties (FDs) were added in 1976. Which among these are FDs? 1. to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest

2. to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country

3. to safeguard public property and to abjure violence Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

130.Among the following, which is/are a part of Alternate Dispute Resolution (ADR) ?

1. Gram Nyayalaya

2. Fast Track Courts

3. Lok Adalats

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

131. Suppose Bihar legislative assembly passes a bill and forwards it to legislative council which
rejects it. What happens to the bill then ?

a) a joint sitting is called for by the Governor.

b) the bill ends and become dead.

c) legislative assembly can pass the bill second time to override legislative council.

d) (a) or (c) depending on the type of bill.

132. The original jurisdiction of the High Court includes:

1. disputes related to the election of MPs

2. disputes related to the election of MLAs

3. cases related to murder

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

133. In India, the council of ministers have:

1. Individual responsibility

2. legal responsibility

3. collective responsibility

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. a) 1 and 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

134. The Union executive of India consists of :

1. President

2. Vice-President

3. Prime Minister

4. Council of Ministers

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1, 2 and 3 only

b) 1 ,3 and 4 only

c) 2 ,3 and 4 only

d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4

135. With reference to removal of chairman of a state public service commission, consider the
following statements :

1. they can be removed for misbehaviour.

2. they can be removed only by the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

136. Which of the following bodies concerned with Inter-State relations are constitutional?

1. River water tribunals

2. Inter-State Councils

3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None

137. The jurisdiction of UPSC can be extended by –

a) Government via a resolution

b) President

c) Parliament

d) (b) or( c) depending on the type of extension.

138. With reference to Finance Commission (FC), consider the following statements :

1. As the FC is a constitutional body, its recommendations are binding on the government.

2. The chairman of a FC is not eligible for reappointment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

139. Which of these is/ are constitutional posts?

1. Special officer for linguistic minorities

2. Advocate general

3. Solicitor general

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

140. With reference to National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), consider the following
statements :

1. Only a retired Chief Justice of India can become chairman of NHRC.

2. The chairman can be reappointed.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

141. The Indian constitution has defined which of the following?

1. Scheduled Castes

2. Scheduled Tribes

3. Anglo-Indians

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

142. The powers of Attorney General of India includes

1. right to speak in Parliament

2. right to vote in Parliament

3. right to become member of Parliamentary committees Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 3

c) only 1

d) 1,2 and 3

143. Which of the following actions can the President perform on a money bill presented to
him/her ?

1. pass it

2. reject it

3. return it once, but if it comes bacl he/she has to give assent

4. pocket veto it

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 4 only

144. Who among the following participates in the election of Vice-President ?

1. elected MPs

2. nominated MPs

3. elected MLAS

4. nominated MLAs

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only

145. Parliamentary authorization for payments is required for :

1. Public account of India

2. Consolidated fund of India

3. Contingency Fund of India

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2 and 3

146. Which of the following actions can the parliament take with respect to any particular tax?

1. increase it

2. decrease it

3. abolish it

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

147. Who among the following takes the oath to ‘uphold the constitution and the laws’?

1. President

2. CAG

3. Supreme court Judge

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

148. On a question whether a member of parliament (MP) is subject to any of the disqualification
under Representation of People’s Act, 1951 whose decision is final?

a) President

b) High Court

c) Supreme Court

d) Election Commission of India

149. The central government has decided to move the following bills in the coming session of
parliament. Which of these can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha ?

1. a bill for imposition of fine for spitting on roads as part of Swachha Bharat Abhiyan

2. a bill for limiting the borrowing of money by government to reduced fiscal deficit.

3. a bill for imposition of luxury tax on expensive items Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

150. The Indian Parliament is not sovereign. This is because of

1. institution of CAG as a supreme auditor

2. Judicial review

3. Federal system of government

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTION USEFUL FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATION - TEST 11

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