Sarkari Niyukti

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October 10, 2016

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE 20 MCQ PRACTICE SET FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATION 2016


MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS




PRACTICE SET – 1

Q.1.Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?
(a) Nationalists (b) conservatives (c) liberals (d) radicals

Q.2.The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe
(In 1815) were called:
(a) Nationalists (b) liberals (c) revolutionaries (d) radicals

Q.3.Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution?
(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.
(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.
(c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society.
(d) All the above

Q.4.The majority religion of Russia was ___________ but the empire also included _________
(a) Russian Orthodox Church, grown out of Greek Orthodox Church
(b) Russian Orthodox Church
(c) Catholics, Protestants, Muslims and Buddhists
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.5.Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?
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(a) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra (b) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin
(c) The huge cost of fighting in the World War I (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.6 Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Socialists till 1914?
(a) They helped various associations to win seats in the parliaments in Europe
(b) Socialists, supported by strong figures in parliamentary politics, shaped and influenced legislation
(c) They succeeded in forming a government in Europe
(d) Governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals

Q.7.How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’?
(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise (b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote (d) All the above

Q.8.Which of the following statements is not correct about the ‘radicals’?
(a) They supported women’s right to vote
(b) They opposed the privileges of great landowners
(c) They were completely against the existence of private property
(d) They wanted a government based on the majority of a country’s population

Q.9.What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution occurred (b) New cities came up (c) Railways expanded (d) All the above

Q.10. By the mid-19th century in Europe, the idea which attracted widespread attention on the restructuring of
society was
(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c) Dictatorship (d) None

Q.11. Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?
(a) Bismarck (b) Karl Marx (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) None
Q.12. When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party formed in Russia?
(a) 1898 (b) 1900 (c) 1905 (d) 1910

Q.13 What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours (b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions (d) All the above

Q.14.Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
(a) Because it was incapable of taking good decisions (b)Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority
(c) The term of first Duma was of 75 days only (d) None of the above

Q.15.In the World War I, which started in 1914, Russia fought against
(a) Britain and France (b) Germany and Austria (c) America (d) All the above

Q.16.What was the position of Russia’s army in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916?
(a) Russian army brought a lot of destruction in Germany and Austria. (b) It killed a large member of people and
was victorious (c) Russian army lost badly (d) None of the above

Q.17.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) By 1916, railway lines in Russia began to break down
(b) There were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down
(c) Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army
(d) All the above

Q.18. Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22 February, 1917?
(a) It was extremely cold for the workers to work, because of frost and heavy snow
(b) The workers were being forced to join the army
(c) Food shortages were deeply felt in the workers’ quarters situated on the left bank of theRiver Neva
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.19. On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council called
(a) Soviet Council (b) Petrograd Soviet (c) Moscow Union (d) Russian Council

Q.20.When did the Tsar abdicate the throne?
(a) 28 February, 1917 (b) 2 March, 1917 (c) 10 April, 1917 (d) 15 May, 1918

Q.21.Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenin’s 'April Theses'?
(a) World War I should be brought to an end (b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
(c) Banks should be nationalised (d) All the above

Q.22. Why was most of the Bolshevik Party members initially surprised by ‘April Theses’?
 (a) They wanted continuation of World War I (b) They thought that time was not ripe for a socialist revolution
(c) Government needed to be supported at this time (d) All the above

Q.23. Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
(a) Karl Marx (b) Friedrich Engels (c) Vladimir Lenin (d) Trotsky
Q.24. Who started ‘Collectivisation Programme’ in Russia?
(a) Lenin (b) Karl Marx (c) Rasputin (d) Stalin

Q.25. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the?
(a) October Revolution in 1917 (b) November Revolution in 1918
(c) December Revolution in 1919 (d) February Revolution in 1920

Q.26. After 1905, most committees and trade unions were:
(a) Declared illegal (b) declared legal (c) active (d) none of the above

Q.27. At the beginning of the 20th century, the majority of Russian people worked in the:
(a) Industrial sector (b) Agricultural sector (c) Mining sector (d) Transport sector

Q.28.In the Russian Civil War the Bolsheviks and the socialist revolutionaries were represented by which of the
following colours?
(a) Whites and Reds (b) Greens and Whites (c) Reds and Greens (d) None of these

Q.29.The commune of farmers was known as:
(a) Tsar (b) Duma (c) Mir (d) Cossacks

Q.30. Who led the procession of workers to the event ‘Bloody Sunday’ in Russia?
(a) Lenin (b) Stalin (c) Kerenski (d) Father Gapon
PRACTICE SET – 2

Q.1.What was the response of the Germans to the new Weimar Republic?
(a) They held the new Weimar Republic responsible for Germany’s defeat and the disgrace at Versailles
(b) The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation
(c) It became the target of attacks in the conservative national circles
(d) All the above

Q.2. In what ways did the First World War leave a deep imprint on European society and polity?
(a) Soldiers were put above civilians, trench-life was glorified
(b) Politicians and publicists laid stress on men to be aggressive and masculine
(c) Aggressive war propaganda and national honour were given the most support and
Conservative dictatorships were welcomed
(d) All the above

Q.3.Which of the following statements is false about soldiers in the World War I?
(a) The soldiers, in reality, led miserable lives in trenches, survived with feeding on the copra’s
(b) They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling and loss of comrades
(c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country’s honour and personal glory
(d) Aggressive propaganda glorified war

Q.4.The following statements are about Hitler’s early life. Which of them is incorrect?
(a) Hitler was born in 1889 in Austria and spent his youth in poverty
(b) He joined the army during World War I and earned accolades for bravery
(c) He was totally unaffected by German defeat in the war and only thought of improving his career
(d) In 1919 he joined a small group called the German Workers' Party, which later was known as the Nazi Party.

Q.5.The Treaty of Versailles (1920) signed at the end of World War I, was harsh and humiliating for Germany,
because
(a) Germany lost its overseas colonies, and 13 per cent of its territories
(b) It lost 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania, was forced to paycompensation of 6
billion pounds
(c) The western powers demilitarised Germany and they occupied resource-rich Rhineland in the 1920s
 (d) All the above

Q.6.Which of the following was a special surveillance and security force created by Hitler?
(a) Regular police force in green uniform and storm troopers
(b) Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads)
(c) Criminal police (SD), the security service
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.7.What was Hitler’s historic blunder and why?
(a) Attack on Soviet Union in 1941 was a historic blunder by Hitler
(b) He exposed his western front to British aerial bombing
(c) The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany at Stalingrad
(d) All the above

Q.8. Hitler’s world view, which was also the Nazi ideology, was
(a) There was no equality between people, only a racial hierarchy
(b) The blond, blue-eyed, Nordic German Aryans were at the top and Jews at the bottom. The coloured people
were placed in between
(c) Jews were the anti-race, the arch enemies of the Aryans
(d) All the above

Q.9. Why did Helmut’s father kill himself in the spring of 1945?
(a) He was depressed by Germany’s defeat in Second World War
(b) He feared that common people would mishandle him and his family
(c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers
(d) He wanted to die because of the crimes he had committed during Nazi rule

Q.10.Which of the following countries led the Allied Powers in the Second World War?
(a) UK and France (b) USSR and USA (c) Germany and Austria (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.11.Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the end of World War II?
(a) International Military Tribunal (b) British Military Tribunal (c) Allied Military Tribunal (d) Allied Judicial Court

Q.12. Germany’s ‘genocidal war’ was against which of the following people?
(a) Jews and political opponents (b) Gypsies and Polish civilians
(c) Germans who were considered mentally and physically disabled (d) All the above

Q.13. Why did the Nuremburg Tribunal sentence only 11 Nazis to death for such a massive genocide?
(a) Only these 11 Nazis were found guilty
(b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after WorldWar I
(c) Germany promised never to repeat such an act
(d) Germany was ready to pay a huge compensation to the Allied countries for these killings

Q.14. Against which of these countries had Germany fought during World War I (1914-1918)?
(a) England (b) France (c) Russia (d) All the above

Q.15.What was the most important result of the Spartacus League uprising in Germany in 1918-19?
(a) The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion
(b) The Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany
(c) The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacus League
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.16. Who were called the ‘November criminals’?
(a) The Opponents of Weimar Republic (b) The Emperor who abdicated, and his men
(c) The supporters of Weimar Republic (d) none of the above

Q.17. War in 1917 led to the strengthening of Allies and the defeat of Germany because of entry of
(a) China (b) Japan (c) the USA (d) Spain

Q.18.The National Assembly met at Weimer and decided to establish
(a) A democratic constitution with a federal structure (b) A communist form of government
(c) A powerful monarchy (d) A military state

Q.19.What was ‘Dawes Plan’?
(a) A plan which imposed more fines on Germany (b) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans (d) None

Q.20.Which of the following statements is true about the economic crisis in Germany in 1923?
 (a) The value of ‘Mark’ (German currency) collapsed (b) Prices of goods soared high
(c) Weimer Republic brought economic prosperity (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.21.What gave Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state?
(a) Extra-constitutional powers were given to the newly organised forces like Gestapo, the SS and SD
(b) People could be detained in Gestapo torture chambers and sent to concentration camps
(c) No legal procedures were there for the arrested people
(d) All the above

Q.22 Which of the following was a feature of Hitler’s foreign policy?
(a) He pulled out of the League of Nations in 1933 (b) He decided not to attack any country
(c) He thanked the Allied Powers for having put Germany on the right track (d) All the above

Q.23.What was the slogan coined by Hitler when he followed his aggressive foreign policy?
(a) Messenger from God (b) Conquer the world
(c) One people, one empire, and one leader (d) we are Aryans, the real rulers

Q.24.Which incident led to the start of World War II?
(a) German invasion of Switzerland (b) German invasion of Poland
(c) Russian invasion of Germany (d) Japan’s sinking of ship at Pearl Harbour

Q.25.When and among which countries was the Tripartite Pact signed?
(a) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan (b) 1939, Germany, Austria and USSR
(c) 1940, England, France and USA (d) 1938, England, Germany and USSR

Q.26.When did Germany attack the Soviet Union?
(a) 1939 (b) 1941 (c) 1942 (d) 1943

Q.27.Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war?
(a) Hitler’s attack on Eastern Europe (b) Hitler’s policy of genocide of the Jews
(c) Helplessness of England and France (d) Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour

Q.28. When did the Second World War come to an end?
(a) January 1944 (b) May 1945 (c) June 1946 (d) August 1947

Q.29.What was Hitler’s ideology of ‘lebensraum’ or living space?
(a) Multi-storeyed buildings should be built in Germany to increase the living space
(b) The world must be occupied enabling the material resources and power of the German nation.

(c) New territories had to be acquired for settlement
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.30. According to the Nazis, which people were to be regarded as desirable?
(a) Pure and healthy Nordic Aryans (b) German soldiers who helped in territorial expansion
(c) German police of different types (d) All those who were willing to consider Hitler as God
PRACTICE SET – 3

Q.1. Indian Standard Time or I.S.T. is how many hours ahead or behind of G.M.T. or Universal Time?
(a) 5 hrs 30 min behind G.M.T. (b) 15 hrs ahead of G.M.T.
(c) 5 hrs 30 min ahead of G.M.T. (d) None of the above

Q.2. Which of the following has reduced India’s distance from Europe by 7000 km?
(a) Suez Canal (b) Panama Canal (c) Indira Gandhi Canal (d) Buckingham Canal
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Q.3. Which of the following influences the duration of the day and night, as one moves from south to north?
(a) Longitudinal extent (b) Latitudinal extent (c) Standard Meridian (d) All the above

Q.4. The Standard Meridian of India, 82°30′E passes through which of the following places?
(a) Kanniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (b) Walong in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Kachchh in Gujarat (d) Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh

Q.5. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. What time will the watch show
in Gujarat if it is 6 am in Arunachal Pradesh?
(a) 4.16 am (b) 7.44 am (c) 6 am (d) 5.44 am
Q.6. If the local time at Dwarka (69°01′E) in Gujarat to the west of India is 6 am, what will be the local time at
Dibrugarh (94°58′E approximately 95°), in Assam, in the east?
(a) 4.16 am (b) 6 am (c) 7.44 am (d) 7.44 pm

Q.7. From Arunachal Pradesh to Gujarat there is a time lag of:
(a) 24 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 2 hours (d) 30 minutes

Q.8. Both the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India’s mainland is about 30°. But on looking at the map of
India which of the following alternatives do you observe about India’s size?
(a) East-west extent appears to be smaller than north-south extent
(b) East-west extent appears to be larger than north-south extent
(c) East-west and north-south extent appears equal
(d) North-south extent appears to be smaller than east-west extent

Q.9. Approximately what is the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of the mainland of India?
(a) 97° (b) 68° (c) 30° (d) 8°

Q.10. Which geographical feature bounds India’s mainland south of 22°N latitude?
(a) Young Fold Mountains (b) Sandy Desert (c) Lava Plateaus (d) Seas and Ocean
Q.11. By which geographical feature is India bounded in the north-west, north and north-east?
(a) Seas (b) Lave Plateaus (c) Young Fold Mountains (d) Sandy Desert

Q.12. What is India’s size with respect to other countries of the world?
(a) First (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Seventh
Q.13. Which of the following figures shows the total area of India’s landmass?
(a) 2.4 million square km (b) 3.28 million square km(c) 32.8 million square km (d) 3.28 million km

Q.14. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to the Indian territory lies in the Arabian Sea?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands(b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshdweep (d) Maldives

Q.15. Which of the following groups of islands belonging to the Indian territory lies in the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Sri Lanka (c) Lakshadweep (d) Maldives

Q.16. Which latitude passes through the southern-most point of India’s mainland?
(a) 8°4′N (b) 37°6′N (c) 8°4′S (d) 82°30′E

Q.17. Which of the following is the western-most longitude of India?
(a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 68°7′E (d) 82°32′E

Q.18. The eastern-most longitude of India is _________
(a) 97°25′E (b) 68°7′E (c) 77°6′E (d) 82°32′E

Q.19. Which of the following parallels of latitude divides India into two almost equal parts?
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Tropic of Cancer (d) Prime Meridian

Q.20. Which of the following is the longitudinal extent of India?
(a) 8°4′N and 37°6′N (b) 68°7′N and 97°25′E (c) 68°7′E and 97°25′W (d) 8°4′E and 37°6′E

Q.21. Which of the following places of India is located on the three seas?
(a) Port Blair (b) Kavaratti (c) Kanniyakumari (d) Kochi

Q.22. India achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress during which of the following periods?
(a) Since ancient times (b) During medieval period(c) In the 21st century (d) During the last five decades

Q.23. Which of the following Union Territories is located along the west coast of India?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (b) Chandigarh
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Puducherry

Q.24. How many states and Union Territories are there in India?
(a) 28 states and 7 Union Territories including Delhi (b) 23 States and 12 Union Territories
(c) 26 states and 9 Union Territories (d) 30 States and 5 Union Territories
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Q.25. Which of the following ports of India is closest to the Suez Canal route?
(a) Kolkata (b) Chennai (c) Kochi (d) Mumbai

Q.26. Which of the following is the oldest route of contact between India and other countries of the world?
(a) Ocean routes (b) Maritime contact (c) Land routes (d) Air routes

Q.27. Due to which of the following reasons is the Indian Ocean named after India?
(a) India has a strategic location along the trans-Indian Ocean routes
(b) No other country has a long coastline on the Indian Ocean as India
(c) India is centrally located at the head of the Indian Ocean
(d) All the above

Q.28. Which of the following longitudes is selected as the Standard Meridian for India?
(a) 68°7′E (b) 82°30′E (c) 97°25′E (d) 23°30′N

Q.29. In which of the following places, would you find the least difference in the duration between day time and
night time?
(a) Kanniyakumari (b) Leh (b) Srinagar (d) Itanagar
Q.30. Tropic of Cancer passes through which of these states
(a) Orissa (b) Tripura (c) Bihar (d) Punjab

Q.31. Which one of the following is the southern-most Latitude of India?
(a) 8° 4′ North (b) 8° 4′ South (c) 6° 4′ South (d) 6° 4′ North

Q.32. The latitudinal extent of India lies between
(a) 7° 5′ N and 26° 5′ N (b) 8° 4′ N and 37° 6′ N (c) 12° 5′ N and 27° 5′ N (d) 12° 5′ N and 37° 6′ N

Q.33. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tripura (c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar

Q.34. Which meridian is fixed as a Standard Meridian of India?
(a) 82½° E (b) 84½° E (c) 86° E (d) 81° E

Q.35. The easternmost longitude of India is :
(a) 97° 25′ E (b) 77° 6′ E (c) 68° 7′ E (d) 82° 32′ E

Q.36. What is the position of India in the world in respect of area?
(a) 8th position (b) 7th position (c) 6th position (d) 2nd position

Q.37. Which one of the following forms the southern-most tip of the Indian mainland?
(a) Indira Point (b) Kanniyakumari (c) Palk Strait (d) Kavaratti

Q.38. Which line divides India into approximately two equal parts?
(a) Equator (b) Tropic of Cancer (c) Tropic of Capricorn (d) None of these

Q.39. Which country among the India’s neighbours is the smallest?
(a) Nepal (b) Bhutan (c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh

Q.40. How many states and Union Territories does India have?
(a) India has 26 States and 7 Union Territories (b) India has 25 States and 7 Union Territories
(c) India has 28 States and 7 Union Territories (d) India has 28 States and 6 Union Territories
PRACTICE SET – 4

Q.1.Which of the following is the result of concern over rising pollution in our rivers?
(a) Banning hydroelectric projects (b) Various river action plans
(c) Rainwater harvesting (d) None of the above

Q.2.Which of the following affects the self-cleansing capacity of the river?
(a) Aquatic organisms (b) Drawing of water for irrigation
(c) Hydroelectricity generation (d) Pollution

Q.3.Which of the following is not one of the causes of river pollution?
(a) Dumping of garbage (b) Aquatic organisms and algae
(c) Discharge of untreated sewage (d) Discharge of industrial effluents
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Q.4.Which one of the following cities of India is not located on a riverbank?
(a) Haridwar (b) Allahabad (c) Shillong (d) Varanasi

Q.5.Lakes are of great value to human beings. Which of the following statements about lakes given below is incorrect?
(a) Helps to regulate the flow of rivers (b) It results in flooding
(c) Can be used for developing hydel power (d) Enhances natural beauty

Q.6.Why have the river banks attracted settlers from ancient times?
(a) Water is a basic natural resource (b) Rivers provide water for irrigation
(c) Rivers provide facilities for inland navigation (d) All the above

Q.7.In which of the following states are Nainital and Bhimtal located?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand

Q.8.Which of the following is an artificial lake located in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Kolleru (b) Nagarjuna Sagar (c) Krishnaraja Sagar (d) Vembanad

Q.9.Which one of the following is not a lake created by human beings?
(a) Gobind Sagar (b) Nizam Sagar (c) Barapani (d) Hirakud

Q.10.Which one of the following freshwater lakes is the largest?
(a) Wular (b) Loktak (c) Nainital (d)Dal

Q.11.Which of the following lakes is formed as a result of tectonic activity?
(a) Wular Lake (b) Kolleru Lake (c) Loktak Lake (d) Dal Lake

Q.12.Which of the following lake is a lagoon in the coastal region of Orissa?
(a) Bhimtal (b) Barapani (c) Chilika (d) Hirakud

Q.13.Which one of the following lakes is a saltwater lake?
(a) Wular Lake (b) Sambhar Lake (c) Barapani Lake (d) Dal Lake

Q.14.Which of the following types of lakes is formed due to river action?
(a) Saltwater lakes (b) Glacial lakes (c) Oxbow lakes (d) Lagoons

Q.15.Which type of lakes contain water only during the rainy season?
(a) Oxbow lakes (b) Lagoons (c) Lakes in basins of inland drainage (d) Glacial lakes

Q.16.Which of the following is a famous lake of Srinagar in Kashmir?
(a) Sambhar (b) Bhimtal (c) Chilika (d) Dal

Q.17.Which of the following rivers originates from the Hazaribagh plateau of Chhota Nagpur region and flows eastwards?
(a) Amravati (b) Bhima (c) Ghatprabha (d) Damodar

Q.18.Which of the following waterfalls is made by the river Kaveri and is the second biggest waterfall in India?
(a) Jog (b) Sivasamudram (c) Dhuadhar (d) Hundru

Q.19. The drainage basin of which of the following rivers covers parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu?
(a) Godavari (b) Krishna (c) Kaveri (d) Musi

Q.20. The Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) Wainganga (b) Bhima (c) Krishna (d) Kaveri

Q.21.Which of the following rivers rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra?
(a) Mahanadi (b) Narmada (c) Godavari (d) Koyna

Q.22.Which of the following states is not drained by the Godavari river?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Oriss (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh

Q.23. Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of river Godavari?
(a) Purna (b) Ghatprabha (c) ardha (d) Pranhita

Q.24. Which of the following rivers is known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’?
(a) The Godavari (b) The Narmada (c) The Krishna (d) The Kaveri

Q.25.TheWainganga and the Penganga are tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) The Mahanadi (b) The Narmada (c) The Godavari (d) The Krishna

PRACTICE SET – 5

Q.1.“Workers of my homeland! I have faith in Chile and its future...... It will be a moral lesson to
castigatefelony, cowardice, and treason.” Who said this?
(a) General Augusto Pinochet (b) General Alberto Bachelet (c) Salvador Allende (d) Michelle Bachelet

Q.2. When did the military coup take place in Chile?
(a) 12 Sept. 1973 (b) 11 Sept. 1973 (c) 11 Sept. 1974 (d) None of the above

Q.3. Who led the military coup in Chile in 1973?
(a) General Alberto Bachelet (b) Michelle Bachelet (c) General Augusto Pinochet (d) Salvador Allende

Q.4.What is a referendum?
(a) A vote of all the people on an important national issue (b) A vote of educated population
(c) A vote of men only (d) None of the above

Q.5. Who was elected as President of Chile in Jan. 2006?
(a) Michelle Bachelet (b) General Bachelet (c) General Pinochet (d) None of the above

Q.6.Which party ruled in Poland in 1980?
(a) Polish Workers Party (b) Polish Party
(c) Polish United Workers’ Party (d) None of the above

Q.7.The workers of Lenin Shipyard in the city of Gdansk went on a strike on
(a) 14 Aug 1980 (b) 15 Aug 1980 (c) 14 Sept 1980 (d) None of the above

Q.8. Who was the leader of the Solidarity Movement in Poland?
(a) Pinochet (b) Lech Walesa (c) Jaruzelski (d) None of the above

Q.9.The three governments of Allende’s Chile, Walesa’s Poland and Michelle’s Chile had a
(a) Democratic form of government (b) Martial law
(c) Communist form of government (d) All the above

Q.10. Which Revolution inspired many struggles for democracy all over Europe?
(a) Russian Revolution (b) American Revolution
(c) French Revolution (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.11.What is meant by Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) Right to vote to property owners (b) Right to vote to women
(c) Right to vote to all adults (d) Right to vote to blacks

Q.12. When did Ghana become independent and from whom?
(a) 1956, Dutch (b) 1957, France (c) 1957, Britain (d) 1958, Germany

Q.13.After Independence, who became the first Prime Minister and then the President ofGhana?
(a) Patrice Lumamba (b) Jomo Kenyatta (c) Sam Nujoma (d) Kwame Nkrumah

Q.14. When did Myanmar attain independence and what type of government did it adopt?
(a) 1946, communist (b) 1948, democracy (c) 1947, democracy (d) 1948, dictatorship

Q.15.Which award has been won by Suu Kyi?
(a) Literary Award (b) Oscar Award (c) Nobel Peace Prize (d) None of the above

Q.16.Which organ of the U.N. is responsible for maintaining peace and security among the countries?
(a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) All the above

Q.17. Name the body of the U.N. which acts like a Parliament.
(a) General Assembly (b) Security Council (c) International Court of Justice (d) Social and Economic Council

Q.18. How many members does the Security Council consist of?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 20

Q.19. Name the five permanent members of the Security Council.
(a) US, Germany, France, China, Italy (b) US, Britain, Germany, Italy, France
(c) US, France, Switzerland, China, Russia (d) US, France, Britain, Russia, China

Q.20.Which country contributes most of the money to U.N.?
(a) U.K. (b) France (c) U.S.A. (d) China

Q.21.The President of the World Bank has always been from
(a) U.K. ( b) U.S.A. (c) France (d) Russia

Q.22.Which party ruled Iraq since 1968?
(a) Baa’th Party (b) Socialist Baa’th Party (c) Arab Socialist Baa’th Party (d) None of the above

Q.23.What is the territory under the immediate political control of another state called?
(a) Communist state (b) Colony (c) Democratic state (d) none of the above

Q.24.Which one of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by the people (b) End of colonialism
(c) People’s desire for freedom (d) Invasion by foreign countries

25. Which one of the following situations is democratic?
(a) General Pinochet, an Army General of Chile, led a coup and became the President of the country.
(b) In China, always the Communist Party only wins in elections and forms the government.
(c) The government led by Jaruzelski in Poland, imposed martial law and imprisoned thousands of Solidarity
members who took part in strike.
(d) The African National Congress of South Africa drew up a constitution which gave most extensive rights to its citizns.

26. Which one of the following countries is not a permanent member of UN Security Council?
(a) China (b) France (c) Japan (d) Russia

27. How many member states are there in the International Monetary Fund?
(a) 173 (b) 192 (c) 200 (d) 190

28. Which country among the following was the only country by 1900, where every citizen had voting right?
(a) Australia (b) New Zealand (c) Poland (d) USA

29. Which country supported and controlled the autocratic government in Poland?
(a) USA (b) China (c) Russia (d) UK

30. What is the total number of members in the UN General Assembly?
(a) 200 (b) 190 (c) 193 (d) 205

31. Who among the following in UN has always been a citizen of the US?
(a) Treasury Secretary (b) President of the World Bank
(c) Finance Secretary (d) Secretary General

32. Which of the following countries was the first to give universal adult suffrage?
(a) New Zealand (b) Britain (c) India (d) USA

33. Which of the following does not lead to the spread of democracy?
(a) Struggle by people (b) Invasion by foreign country
(c) End of colonialism (d) People’s desire for freedom

34. Who was the leader of Solidarity Movement in Poland?
(a) Michelle Bachelete (b) Salvador Allende (c) Lech Walesa (d) Pinochet

35. Why was International Monetary Fund established?
(a) To maintain peace and security among the countries
(b) Lends money to governments of member nations when in need
(c) To implement and formulate trade agreements
(d) To take decision regarding misery and poverty of western countries

36. In Myanmar, Aung San Suu Kyi led
(a) National Congress (b) United Workers Party
(c) Communist Party ( d)TheNational League for Democracy

37. First Prime Minister of Ghanawas :
(a) Augusto Pinochet (b) Nkrumah (c) General Bachelet (d) Allende

38. Strike the odd one out:
(a) General Assembly (b) International Court of Justice (c) Security Council (d) Veto

39. How many members’ countries are there in Security Council of UN?
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10

40. Name of the leader in Myanmar put under house arrest is:
(a) Ban Kimoon (b) Uthan (c) Aung San Suu Kyi (d) Khalida Zia

PRACTICE SET – 6

Q.1.The word ‘Democracy’ comes from the Greek word –
(a) Democracia (b) Demokratia (c) Demos (d) Kratia

Q.2.What kind of government is there in Myanmar?
(a) Government elected by the people (b) Communist government (c) Army rule (d) Monarchy

Q.3.The head of the government in Nepal is the:
(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) King (d) Vice President

Q.4. Who led a military coup in Pakistan in 1999?
(a) Benazir Bhutto (b) Nawaz Sharif (c) Pervez Musharraf (d) None of the above

Q.5. In which case was the real power with external powers and not with the locally elected representatives?
(a) India in Sri Lanka (b) US in Iraq (c) USSR in Communist Poland (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.6. ‘One person, one vote’ means
(a) One person is to be voted by all (b) One person has one vote and each vote has one value
(c) A person can vote only once in his life (d) both (a) and (c)

Q.7. How many members are elected to the National People’s Congress from all over China?
(a) 3050 (b) 3000 (c) 4000 (d) 2000

Q8. Why can the Chinese government not be called a democratic government even though elections are held there?
(a) Army participates in election (b) Government is not accountable to the people
(c) Some parts of China are not represented at all (d) Government is always formed by the Communist Party

Q9.Which party always won elections in Mexico since its independence in 1930 until 2000?
(a) Revolutionary Party (b) Mexican Revolutionary Party
(c) Institutional Revolutionary Party (d) Institutional Party

Q.10. Democracy must be based on
(a) One-party system (b) Free and fair election (c) Choice from only the ruling party (d) All the above

Q.11. When did Zimbabwe attain independence and from whom?
(a) 1970, from Black minority rule (b) 1880, from White minority rule
(c) 1980, from Americans (d) 1980, from White minority rule

Q.12.Which party has ruled Zimbabwe since its independence and who is its ruler?
(a) ZANU-PF, Robert Mugabe (b) ZANU-PF, Kenneth Kaunda
(c) Zimbabwe Freedom Party, Nelson Mandela (d) Zimbabwe Party, P Johnson

Q.13 which of these features is/are necessary to provide the basic rights to the citizens?
(a) Citizens should be free to think (b) should be free to form associations
(c) Should be free to raise protest (d) All the above

Q.14.Which organ of the government is required to protect the rights of the citizens?
(a) Executive (b) Legislature (c) Independent judiciary (d) Police

Q.15What is Constitutional Law?
(a) Provisions given in the Constitution (b) Law to make Constitution
(c) Law to set up Constituent Assembly (d) none of the above

Q.16.Which of these is permitted under the Rule of Law?
(a) Prime Minister can be punished for violating the Constitution. (b) Police has a right to kill anybody.
(c) Women can be paid lesser salaries (d) President can rule for as long as he wants.

Q.17.Some of the drawbacks of democracy is
(a) Instability and delays (b) corruption and hypocrisy
(c) Politicians fighting among themselves (d) all the above

Q.18. In which of these cases can democracy not provides a complete solution?
(a) Removing poverty completely (b) Providing education to all
(c) Giving jobs to all (d) All the above

Q19. In which period did China face one of the worst famines that have occurred in the world?
(a) 1932-36 (b) 1958-61 (c) 2001-2002 (d) 2004-2007

Q20 A democratic government is better than a non-democratic government because
(a) It may or may not be accountable (b) It always responds to the needs of the people
(c) It is a more accountable form of government (d) None of the above

Q.21. Democracy improves the quality of decision-making because
(a) Decisions are taken by educated people (b) Decisions are taken by consultation and discussion
(c) Decisions are taken over a long period of time (d) All decisions are approved by judiciary

Q.22.How does democracy allows us to correct its own mistakes?
(a) Mistakes are hidden and cannot be corrected
(b) Re-electing the same government to enable it to correct its mistakes
(c) The rulers can be changed (d) none of the above

Q.23.The most common form that democracy takes in our time is that of
(a) Limited democracy (b) representative democracy
(c) Maximum democracy (d) none of the above

Q.24.Which body in Indian political system is an example of direct democracy?
(a) Zila Parishad (b) Panchayat Samiti (c) Gram Sabha (d) Vidhan Sabha

Q.25.Which of these is an example of perfect democracy?
(a) USA (b) UK (c) India (d) None of the above

Q.26Which of these is not a feature of monarchy, dictatorship or one-party rule?
(a) Censorship of press (b) No opposition party or parties
(c) Citizens taking part in politics (d) One-man rule
PRACTICE SET – 7

Q.1. On what charges was Nelson Mandela sentenced to life imprisonment?
(a) For treason (b) For breaking the laws (c) For corruption charges (d) for possessing illegal property

Q.2. what is apartheid?
(a) Election in proportion to population (b) Official policy of discrimination against the Blacks
(c) Equality among all (d) None of the above

Q.3. In which way did the system of apartheid discriminate among the South Africans?
(a) Restricted social contacts between the races (b) Segregation of public facilities
(c) Created race-specific job categories (d) All the above

Q.4. Name the organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.
(a) African National Conference (b) African Neutral Congress
(c) African National Congress (d) All National Party

Q.5. why did the white regime decide to change its policies?
(a) Increase in protests and struggles
(b) Government realised that repression was becoming difficult
(c) Rise of sympathetic attitude in government for the blacks
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.6. which of these did not form a part of the changed attitude of South African government?
(a) Discriminatory laws were repealed (b) Ban on political parties and media was lifted
(c) Nelson Mandela was freed from imprisonment (d) More discriminatory laws were passed

Q.7. when did South Africa become a democratic country?
(a) 26 April, 1995 (b) 26 April, 1994 (c) 24 March, 1994 (d) 27 April, 1996
Q.8. With the end of apartheid, who became the first President of South African Republic?
(a) F.W. de Klerk (b) P.W. Botha (c) Nelson Mandela (d) None of the above

Q.9. Name the autobiography of Nelson Mandela.
(a) The Long Walk to Freedom (b) South Africa Wins Freedom (c) Walk to Freedom (d) Our Freedom

Q.10. what did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President (b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country (d) Apartheid for the whites

Q.11. what did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property (b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature (d) some special rights

Q.12. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to
(a) The principle of majority rule (b) One person one vote
(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers (d) All the above

Q.13. which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above)

Q.14. when did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?
(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928

Q.15. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi

Q.16. which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they satDown to make the Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above

Q.17. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in 1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909 (d) None of the above

Q.18. which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above

Q.19. which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?
(a) French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution (d) American War of Independence

Q.20. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly (c) Constitutional Assembly (d) People’s Assembly

Q.21. when did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949

Q.22. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad

Q.23. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000

Q.24. Who said the following?
“I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country ..... InWhich all communities
shall live in perfect harmony?”
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sarojini Naidu
54

Q.25. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q.26. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from
Every eye.” Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?
(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Q.27. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article

Q.28. Match these guiding values with their meanings.
(A) Sovereign (i) government will not favour any particular religion
(B) Republic (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outsideInterference
(C) Fraternity (iii) Head of the state is an elected person
(D) Secular (IV) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people
(a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(IV) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(IV), C-(iii), D-(ii) (d) A-(IV), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)

Q.29. which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above

Q.30. what kind of ‘Justice’ does our Preamble provide?
(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (C) Social Justice (d) All the above

Q.31. which of these positions is correct in relation to the ‘Sovereign’ status of India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces

Q.32. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q.33. which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the constitution?
(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day (c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day

Q.34.The Indian constitution has borrowed from
(i) Ideas from French Revolution (ii) The British Constitution
(iii) The Bill of Rights of the US (IV) Israeli Constitution
(a) i, ii, iv (b) i, ii, iii, (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv

Q.35.The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?
(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150

Q36. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Q.37. When did the Indian constitution come into force?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930

Q.38. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru

Q.39When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950

Q.40. Drafting Committee was chaired by:
(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar

PRACTICE SET – 8

Q.1 Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?
(a) Jowar and bajra (b) Wheat (c) Soyabean (d) Rice

Q.2. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?
(a) Wheat (b) Rice (c) Cotton (d) Jowar and bajra

Q.3. Which of the following is fixed capital?
(a) Tools and machines (b) Fertilisers and pesticides (c) Soil (d) Seeds

Q.4. Which of the following is a standard unit of measurement of land?
(a) Bigha (b) Hectare (c) Acre (d) Guintha

Q.5. The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) Rs. 50 (b) Rs. 60 (c) Rs. 70 (d) Rs. 80

Q.6. Money in hand is an example of
(a) Human capital (b) Fixed capital (c) Working capital (d) Physical capital

Q.7. HYV seeds stands for
(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds (b) High yielding variety seeds (c) Half yielding variety seeds (d) None

Q.8. What is the main production activity in Palampur village?
(a) Farming (b) Animal husbandry (c) Transport (d) Small-scale manufacturing

Q.9. Multiple cropping means growing
(a) only two crops (b) only three crops (c) upto four crops (d) more than one crop

Q.10. Land under cultivation (in million hectares) in India in the year 2000 was
59
(a) 120 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150

Q.11. Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?
(a) Deccan plateau (b) Coastal regions (c) Riverine plains (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.12. Modern farming methods were tried in India for the first time in
(a) Punjab ( b) Western U.P. (c) Haryana (d) All the above

Q.13. Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping (b) Use of HYV seeds (c) Use of chemical fertilisers (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.14. Production of pulses (in million tonnes) in India during 2000-01 was
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 14 (d) 12

Q.15. Which one is a natural resource?
(a) Labour (b) Raw materials (c) Mineral (d) None of the above

Q.16. High yielding variety seeds (HYV) were introduced to Indian farmers as a result of
(a) White Revolution (b) Green Revolution (c) IT Revolution (d) None of the above

Q.17. Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?
(a) Sugarcane (b) Potato (c) Jowar and bajra (d) Wheat

Q.18. The activities such as small manufacturing, transport, shopkeeping are referred to as
(a) Non-economic activities (b) Non-farming activities
(c) Non-traditional activities (d) Non-market activities

Q.19. High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes (b) Factories (c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives (d) None of the above

Q.20. The concept of White Revolution is associated with
(a) food crops (b) milk (c) cotton (d) pesticides

Q.21. Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender (b) Entrepreneur (c) Zamindar (d) Manager

Q.22. A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as
(a) Medium farmer (b) small farmer (c) large farmer (d) none of the above

Q.23. Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) Fixed amount of land (b) lack of irrigation (c) lack of labour (d) none of the above

Q.24. What is done to surplus wheat in Palampur?
(a) Sold in the market (b) Destroyed (c) Stocked by self (d) Given in charity

Q.25. Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Rajasthan (d) Himachal Pardesh

Q.26. People of Palampur sell milk in the near by large village named:
(a) Pitampura (b) Siliguri (c) Shahpur (d) Raiganj

Q.27. Out of the total cultivated areas in the country, how much area is irrigated today
(a) less than 40% (b) less than 30% (c) less than 60% (d) less than 70%

Q.28. 'Operation Flood' is related to :
(a) control flood (b) produce fish (c) milk production (d) grain production

Q.29. Green Revolution is related to :
(a) Milk Production (b) Grain production (c) Fish production (d) none of these

Q.30. Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
(a) Banks (b) Co-operative Societies (c) Village money lenders (d) Friends and
relatives

Q.31. Which one among the following is not fixed capital?
(a) Machines (b) Buildings (c) Tools (d) Raw materials

Q.32. Why do the farmers of Palampur follow multiple cropping? Choose the correct answer.
(a) Because the water consumption is less in this method
(b) Because this method consumes less chemical fertilisers
(c) Because this method doesn't require fertile soils
(d) Because this method is the most common way of increasing production

Q.33. Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?
(a) Tubewells (b) Persian wheel (c) Rainwater harvesting (d) None of these

Q.34. How many families lives in Village Palampur?
(a) 150 (b) 250 (c) 350 (d) 450

Q.35. Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?
(a) Multiple croppping (b) Crop rotation (c) Dairy farming (d) Modern farming

Q.36. Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?
(a) Soil degradation (b) Deforestation (c) Decrease in groundwater (d) Water pollution

Q.37. Marginal farmers are those :
(a) who use modern methods for farming (b) who practice crop rotation for farming
(c) who did not have sufficient land for farming (d) who use modern methods of irrigation


Q.38. Working capital stands for :
(a) Tools, machines and buildings (b) raw materials and money in hand
(c) total share capital (d) fixed deposits in financial institutions

Q.39. Which is the most abundant factor of production in India?
(a) Land (b) Capital (c) Labour (d) Tools and machines

Q.40. Multiple Cropping refers to :
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice (b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year (d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same
farm
PRACTICE SET – 9

Q.1. Why is literacy rate is low in the females?
(a) lack of equal education opportunities (b) lack of transport facilities
(c) lack of infrastructure (d) lack of income

Q.2. Which state has highest literacy rate as per 2001?
(a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Bihar (d) Orissa

Q.3. Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age
group of 6-14 years?
(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan (b) Adult Education Programme (c) Mid-day meal (d) None

Q.4. Market activity known as production for
(a) exchange (b) earning income (c) earning profit (d) all the above

Q.5. Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of
(a) good quality of life (b) improvement in health sector
(c) better HDI (Human Development Index) (d) all the above

Q.6. what is Self-consumption is called
(a) non-production activity (b) non-market activity (c) non-economic activity (d) none of the above

Q.7. Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes
(a) trade ( b) marketing (c) manufacturing (d) education

Q.8. One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as
(a) student (b) adult (c) child (d) literate

Q.9. What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?
(a) first (b) second (c) third (d) fourth

Q.10. Investment in human capital is expenditure on
(a) education (b) training (c) medical care (d) all the above

Q.11. The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is
(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas (c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas (d) None of the aboves

Q.12. Services of housewives are included in
(a) national income (b) domestic income (c) household income (d) none of the above

Q.13. Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years (c) 3 years (d) 4 years

Q.14. Choose the non-market activities
(i) Vilas sells fish in the village market (ii) Vilas cooks food for his family (iii) Sakal works in a private firm (iv) Sakal
looks after his younger brother and sister
(a) (i) & (ii) (b) (iii) & (iv) (c) (i) & (iii) (d) (ii) & (iv)

Q.15.Which one from the following is the primary sector activities
(i) Forestry (ii) Poultry farming (iii) Animal husbandry (iv) Manufacturing
(a) (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii) (c) (ii), (iii), (iv) (d) All the above

Q.16.What are Tertiary sector provides
(a) services (b) goods (c) both goods and services (d) none of the above
Q.17.The quality of population depends on
(a) literacy rate (b) health (c) skill (d) all the above

Q.18. People as a resource refers to the
(a) educational skills (b) productive skills (c) health skills (d) none of the above

Q.19. Where is Seasonal unemployment found
(a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) in remote areas (d) both in rural and urban areas

Q.20. Bribe taking by parent is an
(a) economic activity (b) marketing activity (c) non-economic activity (d) none of the above

Q.21.The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under
(a) seasonal unemployment (b) disguised unemployment (c) educated unemployment (d) none of the above

Q.22. Disguised unemployment when the number of persons working on a farm is
(a) only what is required (b) more than required (c) less than required (d) None of the above

Q.23. If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?
(a) Structural unemployment (b) Cyclical unemployment (c) Seasonal unemployment (d) None of these

Q.24. What is the literacy rate of India as per 2011 census?
(a) 60% (b) 62% (c) 74.04% (d) 70%

Q.25. What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census, :
(a) 921 females per 1000 (b) 930 females per 1000 (c) 928 females per 1000 (d) 933 females per 1000

Q.26. Forestry and dairy are related to which?
(a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector (c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above

Q.27. What is the expended form of PHC
(a) Public Health Club (b) Private Health Club (c) Primary Health Centre (d) None of these

Q.28. From the following in which fields is disguised unemployment found?
(a) Industries (b) Agriculture (c) Mining (d) Fisherise

Q.29. What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?
(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

Q.30.Which one from the following is related to the tertiary sector?
(a) Agriculture (b) Forestry (c) Mining (d) Communication

Q.31. Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(a) Agriculture (b) Fisheries (c) Poultry farming (d) Mining

Q.32. Which one is an economic activity in the following?
(a) Work of Nurse at her home (b) Work of Doctor at their home
(c) Work of Teacher in the school (d) None of the above

Q.33. Which one of the following is considered important to create a 'virtuous cycle' by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school (b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools (d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Q.34. Infant mortality rate in 2001 was :
(a) 85 (b) 70 (c) 75 (d) 35

Q.35. What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?
(a) 72 years (b) 53 years (c) 64 years (d) 80 years
Q.36. Tenth Plan endeavoured to increase enrolment in higher education from 6% to :
(a) 7% (b) 9% (c) 10% (d) 12%

Q.37. Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
(a) Increase in life expectancy (b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country (d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Q.38. which one is odd in the following (with reference to population) :
(a) Education (b) Medical Care (c) Training (d) Computers

Q.39. The number of females per thousand males refers to :
(a) Sex Ratio (b) Literacy Rate (c) Infant Mortality Rate (d) Birth Rate

PRACTICE SET – 10

Q.1. Who were the colonial power in Indonesia?
(a) British (b) Dutch (c) French (d) Portuguese

Q.2.Which place is now famous as a rice-producing island in Indonesia?
(a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Borneo (d) Kalimantan

Q.3. Where did the Dutch start forest management in Indonesia?
(a) Java (b) Sumatra (c) Bali (d) None of the above

Q.4. Who were ‘Kalangs’ of Java?
(a) Dynasty of rulers (b) Skilled forest cutters and shifting cultivators
(c) A community of moneylenders (d) none of the above

Q.5 The Kalangs resisted the Dutch in
(a) 1700 (b) 1750 (c) 1770 (d) 1800

Q.6. According to the forest laws enacted by the Dutch in Java,
(a) Villagers’ access to forest was restricted
(b) Wood could be cut only for specified purposes like making river boats or constructing houses
(c) Villagers were punished for grazing cattle
(d) All the above

Q.7.What was the system of ‘blandongdiensten’?
(a) A system of education (b) Industrialisation
(c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption (d) None of the above

Q.8.What did Surontiko Samin of Randublatung village, a teak forest village, begin questioning?
(a) The foreign policy of the Dutch (b) State ownership of the forest
(c) The export policy of the Dutch (d) none of the above

Q.9.What was the policy followed by the British in India towards forests during the First and the Second World Wars?
(a) The forest department cut trees freely to meet British war needs
(b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British
(c) More and more trees were planted to give employment to Indians
(d) None of the above
Q.10.What is the goal of governments across Asia and Africa since the 1980s?
(a) Conservation of forests (b) Collection of timber
(c) Settling people in forest areas (d) Destroying old forests and growing new ones

Q.11. Who wrote the book ‘The Forests of India’ in the year 1923?
(a) David Spurr (b) E.P. Stebbing (c) Verrier Elvin (d) John Middleton

12. Which of the following is not associated with Sweden agriculture?
(a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Bewar (d) Penda

13. Indian Forest Service was set up in the year:
(a) 1865 (b) 1864 (c) 1854 (d) 1884

14. Which of the following was not a tribal community?
(a) Karacha (b) Jhum (c) Korava (d) Yerukula

15. The system of scientific forestry stands for:
(a) System whereby the local farmers were allowed to cultivate temporarily within a plantation
(b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones
(c) Division of forest into three categories
(d) Disappearance of forests

16. In which year the Baster rebellion took place?
(a) 1910 (b) 1909 (c) 1911 (d) 1912

17. In South-East Asia shifting agriculture is known as:
(A) Chitemene (b) Tavy (c) Lading (d) Milpa

18. The Gond forest community belongs to which of the following
(a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Gujarat

19. Forests consisting of which type of trees were preferred by the Forest Department?
(a) Forests having trees which provided fuel, fodder and leaves
(b) Forests having soft wood
(c) Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways

20. Which of the following term is not associated with shifting agriculture in India?
(a) Penda (b) Bewar (c) Khandad (d) Lading

21. Which of the following is a community of skilled forest cutters?
(a) Maasais of Africa (b) Mundas of Chotanagpur(c) Gonds of Orissa (d) Kalangs of Java

22. Why did the government decide to ban shifting cultivation? (a) To grow trees for railway timber
(b) When a forest was burnt, there was the danger of destroying valuable timber
(c) Difficulties for the government to calculate taxes
(d) All the above reasons

23. Wooden planks lay across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called:
(a) Beams (b) Sleepers (c) Rail fasteners (d) none of these

24. Which of the following was the most essential for the colonial trade and movement of goods?
(a) Roadways (b) Railways (c) Airways (d) River ways

25. Which of the following is a commercial crop?
(a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Cotton (d) Maize
PRACTICE SET – 11

Q.1. Why were some forests classified as “protected”?
(a) In these the customary grazing rights of pastorals were granted but their movements were severely
restricted.
(b) The colonial officials believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and young shoots of trees that germinated on the forest floor.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

Q.2. In what ways lives of Gujjar Bakarwals of Jammu and Kashmir similar to that of Gaddi shepherds of Himachal Pradesh?
(a) They both have a similar cycle of seasonal movement
(b) They both spend their winters on low hills of Siwalik range, grazing their herds in dry scrub forests.
(c) In April, they begin their upward journey again for their summer grazing grounds
(d) All the above

Q.3.Which of these are the pastoral communities of the mountains?
(a) Gujjars (b) Gaddis (c) Bhotiyas and Sherpas (d) All the above
Q.4. The social changes in Maasai society are that
(a) the traditional difference based on age, between the elders and warriors, has been disturbed, but it has not broken
down
(b) a new distinction between the wealthy and the poor pastoralists has developed
(c) both (a) and (b) , (d) none of the above

Q.5. Dhangars were an important pastoral community of
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) U.P. (d) Assam
Q.6.By October, the Dhangars harvested their bajra and started on their move to the west. Why were they
welcomed by the Konkani peasants?
(a) They married off their children in each other’s communities (b) The Dhangars brought bajra for them
(c) Dhangar flocks manured their fields and fed on the stubble (d) None of the above

Q.7. Where were the Banjaras found?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Punjab, Rajasthan (c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra (d) All the above

Q.8. Why did the colonial state want to transform all grazing lands into cultivated farms?
(a) Land revenue was one of the main sources of its finance
(b) It could produce more jute, cotton, wheat and other agricultural produce that were required in England
(c) Both (a) and (b), (d) None of the above

Q.9. According to the ‘Wasteland Rules’
(a) uncultivated lands were taken over and given to select individuals
(b) these individuals were granted various concessions and encouraged to settle these lands
(c) some of them were made headmen of villages in the newly cleared areas
(d) all the above

Q.10. In which way did the Forest Acts change the lives of the pastoralists?
(a) In the areas of forests where the pastoralists were allowed, their movements were regulated
(b) They needed a permit for entry
(c) The timing of their entry and departure was specified
(d) All the above

Q.11. Which of the following statements best explains pastoralist nomads?
(a) The villagers who move from one place to another
(b) The people who do not have a permanent place to live in
(c) The herdsmen who move from one place to another looking for pasture for their herd
(d) The people who visit many places for enjoyment

Q.12.The pastoralists had to pay tax on
(a) every animal they grazed on the pastures (b) the houses they were living in
(c) number of animals they had (d) none of the above

Q13.What was the result of overgrazing pastures due to restrictions on pastoral movements?
(a) The quality of pastures declined (b) This created deterioration of animal stock
(c) Underfed cattle died in large numbers during scarcity and famine (d) All the above

Q.14.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) Some rich pastoralists started buying land and settling down giving up their nomadic life
(b) Some became settled peasants cultivating land, others took to more extensive trading
(c) The poor pastoralists became labourers, working on fields or in small towns
(d) All the above

Q.15.Which of these are the pastoral communities of Africa?
(a) Bedouins, Berbers (b) Maasai, Somali (c) Boran, Turkana (d) All the above
Q.16. In 1885, Massailand was cut into half with an international boundary between
(a) Kenya and Tanganyika (b) Kenya and Ethiopia (c) Congo and Angola (d) Angola and Botswana

Q.17.Which of these statements is true?
(a) Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves
(b) Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves
(c) Serengeti National Park was created over 14,760 km of Maasai grazing land
(d) All the above

Q.18. When did a severe drought take place, killing over half the cattle in the Maasai Reserve?
(a) 1900 (b) 1933 and 1934 more (c) 1945 (d) 1946 and 1947
Q.19. How was the authority of both elders and warriors adversely affected by the British efforts to
administer the affairs of the Maasai?
(a) The British appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai
(b) These chiefs were made responsible for the affairs of the tribe
(c) The British imposed various restrictions on raiding and warfare
(d) All the above

Q.20.Which of these statements is not true?
(a) Pastoralists are a matter of past now
(b) Pastoralists have tried to adapt to new times
(c) They have changed the paths of their annual movement
(d) They have demanded a right in the management of forests and water resources

Q.21.Which seasonal movements affect the Dhangars of Maharashtra?
(a) Cold and snow (b) Climatic disturbance (c) Drought and flood (d) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons

Q.22. Gaddi were an important pastoral community of:
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Chchattisgarh

Q.23. Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another because of:
(a) Seasonal changes (b) In search of pastures (c) To maintain ecological balance (d) All the above

Q.24. The word Maasai means:
(a) my people (b) pasture land (c) shifting cultivation (d) wasteland

Q.25. Raika pastoral community belongs to:
(a) Himachal Pradesh (b) Rajasthan (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Maharashtra

PRACTICE SET – 12

Q.1. The continuous movement of the pastoral communities helps in
(a) Recovery of the pastures (b) prevention of their overuse
(c) Reduction in the demand of houses (d) both A and B

Q.2. which practice disappeared by 1800, drastically changing the lives of the labourers?
(a) Till 1800, the labourers lived with landowners, ate with their masters and helped themthroughout the year doing various jobs
(b) Now they were paid wages and employed only during harvest times
(c) To increase their profits the landlords cut the amount they had to spend on their workers
(d) All the above

Q.3. why did the white settlers want to push away the Indian Americans from their lands?
(a) The land possessed by the Indians could be turned into cultivated fields
(b) Forest timber could be exported, animals hunted for skins, mountains mined for gold and Minerals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It was a committed policy of the US Government

Q.4. Who was Captain Swing?
(a) A farmer (b) A labourer (c) A mythical name (d) A landlord
Q.5. Which of these reasons led to a radical transformation of the landscape by the early 20th century?
(a) White Americans had moved westward (b) Local tribes were displaced
(c) Entire landscape was carved into different agricultural belts in the USA (d) All the above

Q.6. what were the reasons of the dust storms?
(a) Early 1930s were years of persistent drought
(b) The wind blew with ferocious speed
(c) The entire landscape had been ploughed over, stripped of all the grass that held ittogether.
(d) All the above

Q.7. In the 19th century, the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world Market were
(a) indigo (b) opium (c) maize (d) both (a) and (b)

Q.8. Why were the Confucian rulers of China, the Manchus, suspicious of all foreign Merchants?
(a) The British were buying tea at very low rates
(b) They feared that the British would interfere in local politics and disrupt their authority
(c) China was self-sufficient and did not want to trade with any country
(d) All the above

Q.9. Name the US President who said “Plant more wheat, wheat will win the war.”
(a) President Roosevelt (b) President Clinton (c) President Bush (d) President Wilson

Q.10. How much land did the wheat barons possess at this time in the USA?
(a) 1000-2000 acres of land (b) 2000-3000 acres of land
(c) 3000-4000 acres of land (d) 4000-5000 acres of land

Q.11. In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper. What was its most
Important advantage?
(a) In could harvest 50 acres of wheat (b) 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks
(c) It could cut grass on large areas (d) It could prepare the ground for cultivation

Q.12. Which one of these is not the correct option for the cause of the Great Agrarian
Depression in the USA?
(a) Production had declined rapidly (b) Storehouses overflowed with grain
(c) Vast amount of corn and wheat were turned into animal feed (b) Wheat prices fell and export marketscollapsed

Q.13. What did the settlers of the Great Plains realise after the 1930s?
(a) Using older methods of cultivation were better than modern machines
(b) Competition with other countries was not healthy
(c) They had to respect the ecological conditions of each region
(d) None of the above

Q.14. What was Chinese Emperor’s order about the use of opium in China?
(a) The British were allowed to sell opium in China
(b) The Chinese Emperor told his people to cultivate more and more opium
(c) The Emperor had forbidden its production and sale except for medicinal purposes
(d) None of the above

Q.15. In 1839, who was sent by the Emperor to Canton as a Special Commissioner to stop the opium trade?
(a) I-tsing (b) Lin Ze-xu (c) Lao-Tsu (d) None of the above

Q.16. What was the result of the ‘Opium War’ (1837-42)?
(a) China was forced to accept the humiliating terms of the subsequent treaties signed
(b) It had to legalise the opium trade
(c) It had to open up China to foreign merchants
(d) All the above

Q.17. What did the enclosure imply?
(a) It meant green fields (b) Piece of land enclosed from all sides
(c) It meant open fields (d) Vast area of marshy land

Q.18. The Great Agrarian Depression of the 1930s was caused by
(a) overproduction of wheat (b) fall of wheat production
(c) rise in the price of wheat (d) overproduction of rice

Q.19. Opium was exported from India to:
(a) China (b) Rome (c) U.K. (d) Portugal

Q.20. The Manchus were
(a) Chinese rulers (b) Roman rulers (c) Indian rulers (d) Portuguese rulers


Q21 There were revision of laws by MCC between 1770s and 1780s. They were:
(a) The weight of the ball and the width of the bat were specified
(b) The first leg-before law was published in 1774
(c) The third stump became common, and the first six seam cricket ball was created
(d) All the above

Q.22. The West Indies win in Test Series against England in 1950, had two ironical features.They were:
(a) The victory was considered a national achievement, a way of demonstrating that WestIndians were equals of white Englishmen
(b) The captain of the winning West Indies team was a white Englishman
(c) West Indies cricket team represented not one nation but several dominions which becameindependent countries later
(d) both (b) and (c)

Q23.. There was a quarrel between the Bombay Gymkhana (a Whites only club) and the ParsiClub, because :
(a) The Parsis complained that the public park was left unfit for cricket because the polopolies of the Gymkhana Club dug up the surface
(b) The colonial authorities were prejudiced in favour of their own White compatriots
(c) The White cricket elite in India offered no help to the enthusiastic Parsis
(d) All the above

Q24. When were the first written “Laws of Cricket” drawn up? (CBSE 2010)
(A) 1703 (b) 1744 (c) 1750 (d) 1760

Q.25. When was the Marylebone Cricket Club founded?
(a) 1760 (b) 1787 (c) 1788 (d) 1895

Q.26 Which of these features for cricket were laid down in the 1770s and 1780s?
(a) First leg-before law was published (b) A third stump became common
(c) Creation of first six-seam cricket ball (d) All the above

Q.27. The reason that cricket has originated from the villages is/are
(a) Cricket matches had no time limit (b) Vagueness of the size of the cricket ground
(c) Cricket’s most important tools are all made of pre-industrial materials (d) All the above

Q.28. What were the rich who played cricket for pleasure called?
(a) Amateurs (b) Professionals (c) Commons (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.29. The poor who played cricket for a living were called
(a) needy (b) entertainers (c) professionals (d) commons

Q.30. Who wrote a novel titled ‘Tom Brown’s School Days’ which became popular in 1857?
(a) Thomas Arnold (b) Kim Hughes (c) Thomas Hughes (d) John Middleton

Q.31. In which of these countries was cricket established as a popular sport?
(a) South Africa, Zimbabwe (b) Australia, New Zealand
(c) West Indies, Kenya (d) All the above

Q.32. When and where was the first non-White club established?
(a) End of 18th century, India (b) End of 19th century, West Indies
(c) Mid-19th century, South Africa (d) Beginning of 19th century, Zimbabwe

Q.33. What was the term ‘tournament’ called initially?
(a) Triangular (b) Quadrangular (c) Angular (d) Pentangular

Q.34. Who was Kerry Packer?
(a) British tycoon (b) Australian television tycoon (a) Sri Lankan rebel (b) None of these

Q.35. How did the cricket boards become rich?
(a) By organising large number of matches (b) Through patronage from rich industrialists
(c) By selling television rights to television companies (d) None of the above

Q.36. The ICC headquarters shifted from London to
(a) Sydney (b) India (c) Dubai (d) Singapore

Q.37. When was the first World Cup successfully staged? (CBSE 2010)
(a) 1972 (b) 1973 (c) 1974 (d) 1975

Q.38. Polo was a game invented by the _____
(a) French (b) Dutch (c) Colonial officials in India (d) Germans

Q.39. The first hockey club in India was started in
(a) Bombay (b) Madras (c) Bangalore (d) Calcutta

Q.40. How many times has India won the Olympic gold medals in hockey?
(a) Five (b) Six (c) Eight (d) Nine
PRACTICE SET – 13

Q.1. The existing dress codes in Europe were swept away by
(a) American Revolution (b) French Revolution (c) Russian Revolution (d) The First World War

Q.2. Which one of the following is the most appropriate definition of Sumptuary Laws?
(a) Laws on taxes framed by the government (b) Laws giving privileges to higher sections of society
(c) Laws meant to emphasise the social hierarchy (d) All the above

Q.3. The simplicity of clothing of ‘Sans-Culottes’ was meant to express
(a) the poverty among the common people (b) the prosperity of textile industries
(c) the idea of equality (d) none of the above

Q.4. England passed a law which compelled all persons over 6 years of age, except those of high position, to
wear woollen caps made in England on Sundays and all holy days. What does this mean?
(a) All sumptuary laws were meant to emphasise social hierarchy
(b) Some sumptuary laws were passed to protect home production against imports
(c) Some sumptuary laws were made to promote the religion
(d) None of the above

Q.5. When did women in England start agitating for democratic rights?
(a) 1820s (b) 1830s (c) 1840s (d) 1850s
Q.6. On what grounds were the traditional feminine clothes criticised in the USA?
(a) Long skirts swept the grounds collecting filth and causing illness
(b) The skirts were voluminous and difficult to handle
(c) They hampered movement and prevented women from working and earning
(d) All the above

Q.7. Who was the first American dress reformer to launch loose tunics?
(a) Mrs Amelia Bloomer (b) Martha Somerville (c) Queen Victoria (d) None of the above

Q.8. Radical changes in women’s clothing came about due to the
(a) Russian Revolution (b) World War I (c) World War II (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.9. Which of the following events had an impact on the dressing style of women?
(a) Women working in industries during the First and Second World Wars.
(b) Gymnastics and games entered school curriculum for women.
(c) The Battle of Waterloo (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.10. Which of the following were among other important changes that came about for
Women?
(a) Trousers became a vital part of western women’s clothing
(b) Women took to cutting their hair short for convenience
(c) As women took to gymnastics and games, they had to wear clothes that did not hamperMovement
(d) All the above

Q.11. To some Indians western clothes were a sign of
(a) Progress (b) modernity (c) Freedom from poverty (d) both (a) and (b)

Q.12. Why were Shanar women attacked by Nairs in May 1922?
(a) For wearing a tailored blouse (b) For wearing a cloth across their upper bodies
(c) For wearing gold ornaments (d) For using umbrellas

Q.13. Wearing of which two things created misunderstanding and conflict between the British and the
Indians?
(a) the wearing of turban and shoes (b) the umbrella and gold ornaments
(c) the wearing of saris and dhotis (d) The wearing of gowns and long skirts

Q.14. Who was Manockfee Cowasjee Entee?
(a) A taxpayer (b) A revenue collector (c) An assessor (d) A technocrat

Q.15. What was the idea of national dress as suggested by Rabindranath Tagore?
(a) Combination of Hindu and Muslim dress (b) Combination of Indian and European dress
(c) Only Hindu dress (d) Combination Hindu and Parsi dress

Q.16. Jnanadanandini Devi’s style of wearing sari was adopted by Brahmo Samaji women and came to be
called
(a) Brahmika sari (b) Brahmo sari (c) Samaji sari (d) Bhoomika sari

Q.17. In reaction to which measure of the British did the Swadeshi Movement begin?
(a) Partition of Bengal in 1905 (b) Surat split in 1907
(c) Starting of World War I in 1914 (d) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919

Q.18. According to Gandhi, which kind of dress would have a more powerful political effect?
(a) Western style (b) Indian style (c) Dressing unsuitably (d) Dressing suitably for the occasion

Q.19. In which year did Gandhi adopt dhoti?
(a) 1913 (b) 1915 (c) 1921 (d) 1928
Q.20. Why did Mahatma Gandhi adopt loin cloth and a chaddar as his dress?
(a) it was easy to wear (b) it was not easy to practise
(c) he believed that poor peasants could not afford more than that (d) it was a political statement of selfrespec

PRACTICE SET – 14

Q.1 Choose the right term: it refers to the state of the atmosphere overran area at any point of time.
(a) Climate (b) Humidity (c) Weather (d) Rainfall

Q.2 Which type of climate prevails in India ?
(a) Mediterranean (b) China Type (c) Equatorial (d) Monsoon

Q.3 Which of the following receive most of its rain during October and November?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Punjab (d) Kerala

Q.4Which of the following latitudes pass through the middle of the country?
(a) Tropic of cancer (b) Tropic of Capricorn (c) Equator (d) Arctic Circle

Q.5 Indian subcontinent experiences comparatively mild winters as compare to Central Asia because of……
(a) The Himalayas (b) Mizoram (c) Northern Plains (d) Thar Desert

Q.6Which of the following winds are responsible for the bulk of rainfall in India?
(a) Southwest Monsoon (b) Northeast Monsoon (c) South north Monsoon(d) Westerlies

Q.7What is ITCZ ?
(a) Inter Tropical Converter zone (b) Inter Tropical Convergence zone
(c) Indian Tropical Converter zone (d) None of these

Q.8In which of the following months the Monsoon retreats?
(a) August (b) September (c) October (d) November

Q.9Which of the following is not a climatic condition of the cold season of India?
(a) High Rainfall (b) Clear Sky (c) Low Temperature (d) Low Humidity

Q.10Which of the following crops is benefited because of winter cyclonic disturbances?
(a) Rabi Crops (b) Kharif Crops (c) Zaid Crops (d) None of These

Q.11What is Loo ?
(a) These are Cyclones (b) These are Cold Winds
(c) Strong, Dusty, hot, Dry winds blowing during the day over the north and western India
(d) These are variable winds blowing in cold season

Q.12Which of the following two states are affected by pre monsoon showers ?
(a) Kerala, Punjab (b) Punjab, Haryana (c) Kerala, Karnataka (d) Haryana, Rajasthan
Q.13Which is the Wettest city of India ?
(a) Cherapunji (b) Mawsynram (c) Barmer (d) Ladakh

Q.14In which of the following hills Mawsynram located ?
(a) Khasi Hills (b) Aravalli Hills (c) Nilgri Hills (d) Anaimalai Hills
Q.15Which of the following is responsible for the bulk of rainfall in the coromandal coast ?
(a) South West Monsoon (b) North East Monsoon
(c) Western Disturbance (d) Depressions and Cyclones

Q.16Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar (c) Cherrapunji (b) Mawsynram (d) Guwahati
Q.17The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
(a) Kaal Baisakhi (c) Trade Winds (b) Loo (d) None of the above

Q.18Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in north-western part of India?
(a) Cyclonic depression (c) Western disturbances
(b) Retreating monsoon (d) Southwest monsoon

Q.19Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
(a) Early May (c) Early June (b) Early July (d) Early August
Q.20Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season in India?
(a) Warm days and warm nights (b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights (d) Cold days and warm nights
PRACTICE SET – 15

Q.1 Which of the following word is used to denote plants of a particular region ?
(a) Flora (b) Fauna (c) Natural Vegetation (d) Vegetation
Q.2 Which of the following word is used to denote species of animals of a particular region ?
(a) Flora (b) Fauna (c) Natural Vegetation (d) Vegetation

Q.3 Where are mangrove forests found ?
(a) Desert (b) Deccan Plateau (c) The Himalayas (d) The coastal area influenced by tides

Q.4 A very large ecosystem on land heaving distinct types of vegetation and animal life is called…
(a) Ecosystem (b) Flora and Fauna (c) Biome (d) Vegetation

Q.5 Which of the following vegetation is not found in India ?
(a) Tropical Evergreen Forests (b)Tropical Deciduous Forests
(c) Mangrove Forests (d) Mediterranean type

Q.6 Which parts/regions of India have tropical evergreen forests ?
(a) Western Ghats, Upper parts of Assam (b) North Western parts of country
(c) The Deltas of the Ganga and the Mahanadi (d) Mountainous areas

Q.7 In which of the following states forests you will find one horned rhinoceros ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Gujarat (d) Kerala

Q.8 Which of the following is not a tree of Tropical Evergreen Forests ?
(a) Acacia (b) Rosewood (c) Ebony (d) Rubber

Q.9 Which of the following is the most wide spread vegetation of India ?
(a) Tropical Evergreen Forests (b)Tropical Deciduous Forests
(c) Mangrove Forests (d) Mediterranean type

Q.10Which of the following animal is not found in mountain forests ?
(a) Kashmir Stag (b) Leopard (c) one horned rhinoceros (d) Yak

Q.11Which is the famous animal of the mangrove forests ?
(a) Royal Bengal Tiger (b) Leopard (c) Monkey (d) Lion

Q.12 In which of the following states/ regions the wild ass are found ?
(a) Assam (b) Rann of Kachchh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Manipur

Q.13 Which of the following has not been included in the world network of Biosphere reserves ?
(a) Sunderbans (b) Manas (c) Nanda Devi (d) Nilgiris

Q.14 In which of the following states is the Simlipal Biosphere reserve located ?
(a) West Bengal (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Orissa

Q.15 Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(a) Dudhwa – Rajasthan (b) Manas – Assam (c) Dachigam – J & K (d) Gir - Gujrat

Q.16To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?
(a) Tundra (c) Himalayan (b) Tidal (d) Tropical Evergreen

Q.17Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than
(a) 100 cm (c) 70 cm (b) 50 cm (d) less than 50 cm

Q.18In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
(a) Punjab (b) Delhi (c) Odisha (d) West Bengal

Q.19Which one of the following bio reserves of India is not included in the world network of bio reserve?
(a) Manas (c) Gulf of Mannar (b) Nilgiri (d) Nanda devi
PRACTICE SET – 16

Q.1 Which of the following provides us information regarding the population of our Country ?
(a) The Census of India (b) Government of India
(c) Central Statistical Orgnisation (d) Reserve Bank of India

Q.2 Which is the most populous state of India ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Utter Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) West Bengal

Q.3 Which is the least populous state of India ?
(a) Nagaland (b) Goa (c) Manipur (d) Sikkim

Q.4 Which is the largest state of India ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Utter Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Karnataka

Q.5 Which state has the highest density of population ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) West Bengal (c) Utter Pradesh (d) Haryana

Q.6 Which of the following is not responsible for making population a dynamic phenomenon ?
(a) Education (b) Migration (c) Birth rate (d) Death rate

Q.7 Choose the right word : To change in the number of inhabitants of a country/ territory during a specific period of time.
(a) Birth rate (b) Death rate (c) Migration (d) Growth of Population

Q.8 What is Migration ?
(a) It is Movement of people across regions and territories.
(b) It is Movement of people, goods and services.
(c) It is the composition of population.
(d) None of the mentioned above

Q.9 In which of the following age groups the dependency ratio will be the highest ?
(a) Below 15 years (b) between 15-59 years (c) Above 60 years (d) None of These

Q.10 As per Census 2011 What is sex ratio of India ?
(a) 915 (b) 940 (c) 980 (d) 1025

Q.11 As per Census 2011 What is the literacy rate of Male in India ?
(a) 65.46 (b) 74.05 (c) 82.14 (d) 85.12

Q.12 Which of the following is not a primary activity ?
(a) Animal Husbandry (b) forestry (c) Communication (d) Fishing

Q.13 Which of the following programs aims towards encouraging delayed marriage and child-bearing,
education of adolescence.
(a) NPP (b) KPP (c) MPP (d) LPP

Q.14 Which of the following is responsible for a large proportion of children in a population ?
(a) High Birth Rate (b) High Death Rate (c) High Life Expectations (d) More Married Couples

Q.15 Which is the most populous country of the world ?
(a) United States (b) India (c) China (d) Pakistan

Q.16 Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in
(a) The area of departure (c) both the area of departure
and arrival
(b) The area of arrival (d) none of the above

Q.17 A large proportion of children in a population are a result of
(a) High birth rates (b) high death rates (c) high life expectancies (d) more married couples

Q.18 The magnitude of population growth refers to
(a) The total population of an area (b) the number of persons added each year
(c) The rate at which the population increases (d) the number of females per thousand males

Q.19 According to the Census 2001, a “literate” person is one who
(a) Can read and write his/her name
(b) Can read and write any language
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(d) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)
PRACTICE SET – 17

Q.1. Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal (c) Ajit Singh (d) None of these

Q.2.What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen
(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans
(c) He would modernise agriculture
(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them

Q.3.Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict

Q.4Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?
(a) Everyone is allowed to vote (b) There are political parties to contest elections
(c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected (d) Elections are held at regular intervals

Q.5.What is meant by the term ‘constituency’?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above

Q.6.Which of the options below is the demerits of the electoral competition?
(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
(c) Parties respect each other (d) both (a) and (b)

Q.7In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha

Q.8. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called-
(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections

Q.9.What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or
resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of these

Q.10. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535

Q.11. Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to
(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies

Q.12. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71

Q.13.Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha

Q.14.Which of the options given below is applicable to the principle of Universal Adult Franchise?
(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote
(c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) only employed people can vote

Q.15. for voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card (b) Driving license (c) Election Photo Identity Card (d) None of these

Q.16.What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?
(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years

Q.17.What is the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above

Q.18.What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties and contesting
candidates during the election time, called?
(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.19 Name the body which conducts the elections in India
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission

Q.20. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?
(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people
(c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs

Q.21. When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work?
(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission (c) District Magistrate (d) District Court

Q.22.In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?
(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged (c) Educated people (d) Women

Q.23.What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (d) None of the above

Q.24.An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for unlawful Purpose is
(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact

Q.25.The Election Commission is:
(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body (c) An independent body (d) both (b) and (c)

Q.26Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates (b) Using TV channels
(c) Door to door canvassing (d) Contacting voters on phone

Q.27Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list

Q.28 ‘‘Save Democracy’’ slogan was given by which of the following political party in 1977
Lok Sabha elections?
(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (c) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front

Q.29.What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years

Q.30. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body which is known as
(a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha

Q.31. Voter’s List is also known as:
(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these

Q.32.What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?
(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years

Q.33.Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

Q.34.Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal

Q.35. Reserved Constituencies ensures
(a) Right to equality (b) Proper representation to all religious groups
(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society (d) None of these

Q.36.Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar
Q.37. Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru

Q.38.The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is
(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540

Q.39. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b)The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India (d) The people of India

Q.40. Who is responsible for free and fair elections in India?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President (c) Election Commissioner (d) Council of Ministers

Q.41.The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59 (b) 79 (c) 89 (d) 99
PRACTICE SET – 18

Q.1 What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
(a) They had been caught spying.
(b) They were planning to kill the US President.
(c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in USA.
(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.

Q.2.Which body exposed to the world that prisoners at Guantanamo Bay were being tortured in ways that
violated the US laws?
(A) United Nations (b) International Court of Justice (c) Amnesty International (d) Supreme Court of USA

Q.3.Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system?
(a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary (b) Citizens cannot form political parties
(c) There is no freedom of religion (d) none of the above

Q.4.What is the position of women in Saudi Arabia?
(a) Women are given all the rights (b) Women are given equal status with men
(c) Women are subjected to many public restrictions (d) They are offered high positions

Q.5.What was Milosevic’s attitude towards the Albanians?
(a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians (b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians
(c) He wanted Serbs to dominate the Albanians (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.6. How was the massacre of Albanians finally stopped?
(a) The UN ordered for Milosevic’s arrest (b) Several countries intervened to stop the massacre
(c) The Serbs turned against Milosevic (d) Milosevic reformed himself

Q.7.What is meant by ‘rights’?
(A) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others
(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government
(c) Not possessing any freedoms (d) none of the above

Q.8.Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid?
(a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens
(b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy
(c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy
(d) All the above

Q.9.Under which Fundamental Right has the Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to
Information to the citizens?
(a) Right to freedom of religion (b) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(c) Right to freedom of equality (d) Right to constitutional remedies

Q.10.Which of these is/are the new rights guaranteed by the constitution of South Africa for its citizens?
(a) Right to privacy (b) Right to an environment that is not harmful to the people’s health
(c) Right to have access to adequate housing (d) All the above

Q.11.The right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is called:
(a) Right against Exploitation (b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Cultural and Educational Rights

Q.12. If our Fundamental Rights are violated, where can we seek the remedy?
(a) Supreme Court or High Courts (b) Parliament
(c) Election Commission (d) Council of Ministers

Q.13.What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution (d) the soul of our Constitution

Q.14.What is meant by the term ‘writ’?
(a) Written laws (b) A formal document containing an order of the court to the government
(c) Basic features of the Constitution (d) none of the above

Q.15. When was the NHRC set up?
(a) 1998 (b) 1996 (c) 1993 (d) 2001

Q.16. How many Fundamental Rights does the Indian constitution provide?
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 8

Q.17 Which of the following terms is correct for the feature of the Indian constitution stating that no person is
above the law?
(a) State of law (b) Application of law (c) Rule of law (d) Governance by law

Q.18.What does ‘Right to Equality’ say about the public jobs?
(a) Jobs will be provided to all by the government (b) Jobs will be reserved for the more meritorious students
(c) All citizens will be provided with equal opportunity in matters of employment (d) None of the above

Q.19.What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?
(a) It stands abolished (b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law
(c) Since it is an age-old custom, it should be respected (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.20.Which of these is false regarding the Freedom of Speech and Expression?
(a) Everyone has a right to think differently (b) One may disagree with a policy of the government
(c) One can use it to incite people against the government (d) One is free to criticise the government

Q.21.Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?
(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest
(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest
(c) To engage a lawyer for his defence (d) All the above

Q.22. One of the forms of exploitation as mentioned in the constitution is ‘traffic’. What does it mean?
(a) Transport system (b) Buying and selling of human beings
(c) Buying and selling of goods (d) none of the above

Q.23.What is meant by ‘begar’?
(a) Practice of begging (b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages
(c) Practice of encouraging workers to work at normal wages (d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.24. Laws have been made to prohibit children from working in which of these industries?
(a) Beedi making (b) Fire crackers and matches (c) Printing and dyeing (d) All the above

Q.25.Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to start a movement to change the government (b) Freedom to oppose the government
(c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution (d) None of these

Q.26.Which among the following cannot be challenged in a court?
(a) Directive principles of state policy (b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Freedom to choose any profession or business (d) Right to move freely to any part of the country.

Q.27. Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for:
(a) Women (b) minorities (c) children (d) Men

Q.28.Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Freedom (b) Right to Vote (c) Right to Equality (d) None of these

Q.29.Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to Equality (b) Right to Freedom (b) Right to protect one’s culture (d) Right to property.

Q.30. India is a secular state. What does the word ‘secular’ mean?
(a) The state gives protection to the Hindu religion (b) The state allows only the majority to propagate their religion
(c) The state has no religion of its own (d) none of the above.

Q.31. Civil Rights are given to the individual by:
(a) Nature (b) God (c) The State (d) The people

Q.32.The Indian Constitution prescribes Fundamental Rights in:
(a) Part III (b) part VII (c) part V (d) part IV

Q.33Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Rajendra Prasad

Q.34.The National Human Right Commission is an independent commission, set up by the law in the year:
(a) 1993 (b) 1995 (c) 1999 (d) 2001

Q.35.Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression (b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner (d) Freedom to form associations and unions

Q.36.Which among the following is correct regarding PIL?
(a) Public Interest Legislature (b) Public Interest Litigation
(c) Public Information Litigation (d) Public Information Legislature

Q.37.Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion
(c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country (d) All the above

Q.38.Which of these is not allowed under the Culture and Educational Right in India?
(a) Every cultural group has the right to protect its language and culture.
(b) Admissions can be denied on the basis of religion and culture in government aided educational organisations
set up by cultural groups.
(c) All minority groups have the right to establish educational institutions of their
choice. (d) None of these

Q.39.Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
(a) Right to contest election (b) Right to vote
(c) Right to seek any political office (d) Right to freedom

Q.40. If anyone violates our Fundamental Rights we can directly approach the:
(a) Prime Minister (b) Supreme Court (c) President (d) Vice President

PRACTICE SET – 19

1. Which country of South-East Asia made rapid economic growth?
(a) India (b) China (c) Nepal (d) Pakistan

2. NFWP is stand for:
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress (b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing (d) National Food for Work Programme

3. Social exclusion denies certain individuals the
(a) facilities (b) benefits (c) opportunities (d) all the above

4. How many people in India live below the poverty line?
(a) 30 crores (b) 26 crores (c) 28 crores (d) 24 crores

5. Which organization carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
(a) NSSO (b) CSO (c) Planning Commission (d) None of the above

6. Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?
(a) Scheduled castes (b) Scheduled tribes (c) Casual labourers (d) All the above

7. Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states?
(a) Madhya Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir (b) Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand (c) Orissa, Bihar (d) None

8.Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 – 2000 prices)
(a) Rs 328 (b) Rs. 370 (c) Rs 454 (d) Rs. 460

9. Who are the poorest of the poor?
(a) Women (b) Old people (c) Children (d) All the above

10. What is the poverty ratio in the state of Orissa?
(a) 50% (b) 47% (c) 60% (d) 57%

11. In which state has the high agricultural growth helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir (b) West Bengal (c) Punjab (d) Gujarat

12. In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Punjab (c) West Bengal (d) Kerala

13. Which state has focused more on human resource development?
(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala

14. In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

15. What is the main cause of poverty in India?
(a) High income inequalities (b) Less job opportunities (c) High growth in population (d) All of these

16. Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
(a) Huge income inequalities (b) Unequal distribution of land
(c) Lack of effective implementation of land reforms (d) All the above

17. In rural areas, which of the following are not poor?
(a) Landless agricultural workers (b) Backward classes (c) Rural artisans (d) Medium farmers

18. Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of
(a) calories per day (b) wheat consumption (c) rice consumption per day (d) none of the above

19. As per Planning Commission, minimum daily intake of calories for determining poverty line for rural area is
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 1500 (d) none of the above

Q.20. Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is
(a) same (b) half (c) two times (d) two and a half times
21. What are accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 2800 (d) 2500

22.Which one from the following is considered as poor?
(a) A rich landlord (b) A businessman (c) A landless labourer (d) A teacher

23. Which among the following is the method to estimate the poverty line?
(a) Investment method (b) Income method (c) Capital method (d) Human method

24. Which state has the largest percentage of poors in India?
(a) Bihar (b) Orissa (c) Kerala (d) Punjab

25. When was National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed?
(a) September 2005 (b) August 2004 (c) May 2009 (d) None of these

26. Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawahar lal Nehru (d) Subhash Chandra Bose

27. Which of the following programmes was launched in the year 2000?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
(c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (d) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana

28. Who do not come under the category of urban poor?
(a) The casual workers (b) The unemployed (c) The shopkeepers (d) Rickshawpullers

29. How many percent of Indian people were poor in the year 2000?
(a) 36% (b) 46% (c) 26% (d) 29%

30. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed
youth in rural areas and small towns?
(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme (d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

31. For how many days MNREGA provides employment?
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100

32. Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?
(a) Scheduled caste (b) Urban casual labour (c) Rural agricultural households (d) All the above

33. By which year governments are aiming to meet the Millennium Development Goals including halving the
rate of global poverty?
(a) 2011 (b) 2015 (c) 2045 (d) 2035

34. Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India?
(a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land
(c) Gap between rich and the poor (d) Increase in population

35. In which of the following countries did poverty actually rise from 1981 to 2001?
(a) Sub-Saharan Africa (b) India (c) China (d) Russia

36. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:
(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas. (b) food items are expensive.
(c) they are engaged in mental work. (d) people are engaged in physical labour.

37. Which of the following is an indicator of poverty in India?
(a) Income level (b) Illiteracy level (c) Employment level (d) All of these

38. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level (d) Overlapping of schemes

39. Which industry suffered the most during colonial period?
(a) Jute (b) Textile (c) Indigo (d) All the above

40. Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio?
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Karnataka

PRACTICE SET – 20

1.The most affected groups in rural areas facing food insecurity are:
(a) landless people (b) traditional artisans (c) beggars (d) all the above

2. MSP is stand for:
(a) Minimum Support Price (b) Maximum Support Price (c) Marginal Support Price (d) None of these

3. Green Revolution of 1960s was associated with:
(a) use of HYV seeds (b) tree plantation programme (c) fisheries development (d) None of these

4. P D S is associated with:
(a) fair price shops (b) cooperative stores (c) super bazars (d) none of the above

5. Revamped Public Distribution System provides benefits to:
(a) cities (b) remote and backward areas (c) self-help groups (d) cooperative societies

6. White Revolution of the country is associated to:
(a) sugar (b) milk (c) paper (d) none of the above

7. Annapurna Scheme fulfills the food requirements of:
(a) indigent senior citizens (b) children (c) pregnant ladies (d) young persons

8. Antyodaya cards are related to
(a) all poors (b) poorest of the poor (c) persons below poverty line (d) none of the above

9. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme are linked with :
(a) Public distribution system (b) mid-day meal (c) special nutrition programme (d) none of the above

10. Under the Public Distribution System foodgrains given per family per month is:
(a) 40 kg (b) 35 kg (c) 25 kg (d) 20 kg

11. In which state more than 90% ration shops are run by cooperatives
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Orissa (d) Bihar

12. The society which facilitated setting up of grain banks in different regions is :
(a) Amul (Gujarat) (b) Academy of Development Science (Maharashtra)
(c) Mother Dairy (Delhi) (d) None of the above

13. NREGA provides:
(a) 200-days of assured work (b) 100-days of assured work (c) No assured work (d) None of the above

14. Minimum Support Price is announced by the government to provide :
(a) incentives to farmers for raising production (b) incentives to traders to earn maximum profit from farmers
(c) incentives to moneylenders to lend maximum to farmers (d) none of the above

15. Seasonal hunger mostly found in:
(a) urban areas (b) rural areas (c) metro cities (d) both (a) and (b)

16.In which crop largest increase in production as a result of Green Revolution?
(a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize (d) none of the above

17. Main purpose of buffer stock is :
(a) to save food grains from pest attack (b) to stop price fluctuations
(c) to meet the crisis of low production (d) both (b) and (c)

18. Who is the nodal officer at district level?
(a) Commissioner (b) Superintendent of police (c) District officer (d) Collector

19.What is Food security means:
(a) availability of food (b) accessibility of food (c) affordability of food (d) all the above

20. Massive starvation takes place due to:
(a) rise in the price of essential commodities (b) decline in production of foodgrains
(c) drought (d) both (a) and (b)

21. Chronic hunger refers to :
(a) low income (b) inadequate quantity of food (c) inadequate quality of food (d) all the above

22. The most devastating famine occurred in India in 1943 in :
(a) Assam (b) Bengal (c) Bihar (d) Orissa

23. In which of the following states do we find the largest number of food insecure people?
(a) Bihar, Jharkhand and Orissa (b) Bihar, Jharkhand and Gujarat
(c) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh and Tamilnadu (d) Bihar, Chhattisgarh and Karnataka

24. In which state of India, Amul Dairy is situated?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Gujarat (c) Karnataka (d) Bihar

25. Who released a special stamp entitled ‘Wheat Revolution’ in July 1968?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Indira Gandhi (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Motilal Nehru

26. The price that is announced before the sowing season is called:
(a) Issue price (b) Fair price (c) Market price (d) Minimum support price

27. To whom the yellow card is issued?
(a) To shop keeper (b) To land lord's (c) To government employee (d) People below the poverty line

28. Which are the special target groups in Antyodaya Anna Yojana?
(a) Poorest of the poor (b) Poor and non-poor (c) Backward class (d) None of these

29. Food for Work Programme was launched in which of the following years?
(a) 2003 (b) 2001 (c) 2004 (d) 2005

30. Kalahandi is situated in which of the following states?
(a) Orissa (b) Punjab (c) Rajasthan (d) Bihar

31. The Mother Dairy is an important cooperative in ___________ .
(a) Gujarat (b) Punjab (c) Haryana (d) Delhi

32. Women and children under the age of five are food insecure population due to :
(a) Malnutrition (b) Healthy diet (c) Fats (d) None of the above

33. F.C.I. stands for
(a) Foreign Co-operation with India (b) Food Corporation of India
(c) Fossils Corporation of India (d) Food Coming to India

34. Which among the following schemes was started in the year 2000 for the indigent senior citizens?
(a) PDS (b) NFWP (c) SGSY (d) APS

35. Name the cooperative that provides milk and vegetables controlled rate decided by the Government of
Delhi:
(a) Amul (b) Kendriya Bhandar (c) Mother Dairy (d) None of these

36. Which among the following schemes was initiated for the poor in all areas?
(a) TPDS (b) RPDS (c) AAY (d) All of these

37. Buffer stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by the government through
(a) IFCI (b) FCI (c) IDBI (d) FICCI

38. In which part of the country, grain banks have been set up by NGO's?
(a) Gujarat (b) Haryana (c) Punjab (d) Maharashtra

39. When was the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme launched?
(a) In Jan 1999 (b) In May 2000 (c) In Dec 2000 (d) In October 2005

40. Percentage of seasonal as well as chronic hunger in India over the years has
(a) increased (b) decreased (c) remained constant (d) None of these
Q.41 The Third Estate comprised
(a) Poor servants and small peasants, landless labourers (b) Peasants and artisans
(c) Big businessmen, merchants, lawyers etc. (d) All the above

Q.42.That ‘each member should have one vote’ was advocated by:
(a) Georges Danton (b) Rousseau (c) Jean Paul Marat (d) the Jacobins

Q.43.Which of the following decisions was taken by the convention?
(a) Declared France a constitutional monarchy (b) Abolished the monarchy
(c) All men and women above 21 years got the right to vote (d) Declared France a Republic

Q.44.Which of the following is not the idea of the revolutionary journalist Desmoulins about Liberty?
(a) Liberty is finishing off your enemies (b) Liberty is Happiness, Reason, Equality and Justice
(c) Liberty is the Declaration of Right (d) Liberty is not a child who has to be disciplined before maturity

Q.45. How does a ‘Subsistence Crisis’ happen?
(a) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains (b) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(c) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots (d) All the above

Q.46. In the war against Prussia and Austria, the army sang which patriotic song?
(a) 'Liberty', written by an unknown woman poet (b) ‘Marseillaise’ written by the poet Roget de Lisle
(c) ‘Viva France’ written by a French peasant (d) None of the above

Q47.Which of the following statements is untrue about the Third Estate?
(a) The Third Estate was made of the poor only (b) Within the Third Estate some were rich and some were poor
(c) Richer members of the Third Estate owned lands (d) Peasants were obliged to serve in the army, or build roads

Q.48. Who wrote the pamphlet called ‘What is the Third Estate’?
(a) Mirabeau, a nobleman (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Rousseau, a philosopher (d) Montesquieu

Q.49. A guillotine was _______________________
(a) A device consisting of two poles and a blade with which a person was beheaded
(b) A fine sword with which heads were cut off
(c) A special noose to hang people (d) none of the above

Q.50. When did the French Revolution begin?
(a) July 14, 1789 (b) January 10, 1780 (c) August 12, 1782 (d) None of the above

Q.51.The word livres stands for:
(a) unit of currency in France (b) tax levied by the Church
(c) Tax to be paid directly to the state (d) none of these

Q.52.What was the effect of the rise of population of France from about 23 million in 1715 to28 million in 1789?
(a) Education became difficult (b) Rapid increase in the demand for food grains
(c) Housing problem occurred (d) All the above

Q.53.What was the ‘Subsistence Crisis’ which occurred frequently in France?
(a) An extreme situation endangering the basic means of livelihood (b) Subsidy in food grains
(c) Large-scale production of food grains (d) None of the above

Q.54.What was the name of tax which was directly paid to the state by the Third Estate?
(a) Tithes (b) livres (c) taille (d) all of these

Q.55.What was ‘Estates General’?
(a) Post of Army General (b) A political body (c) Head of all landed property (d) Advisor of the king

Q.56 Which social groups emerged in the 18th century?
(a) Lawyers (b) Administrative officials(c) Middle class (d) All the above

Q.57. The term ‘Old Regime' is usually used to describe
(a) France before 1000 B.C. (b) Society of France after 1789 A.D.
(c) Society and institutions of France before 1789 A.D. (d) None of the above

Q.58. In which of these countries was the model of government as advocated by Montesquieu put into effect?
(a) USA (b) China (c) USSR (d) All the above

Q.59.Which of these books was written by John Locke?
(a) The Spirit of the Laws (b) Two Treatises on Government(c) The Social Contract (d) All the above

Q.60.When did Louis XVI call an assembly of Estates General to pass proposals for new taxes?
(a) 2 January, 1775 (b) 10 March, 1780 (c) 5 May, 1789 (d) 14 July, 1789

Q.61. In the meeting of the Estates General, the members of the Third Estate demanded that
(a) All the three Estates should have one vote altogether (c) Each Estate should have one vote
(b) Each member of the three Estates should have one vote (d) None of the above

Q.62. On 20th June, the representatives of the Third Estate assembled in the indoor tennis court of Versailles for
(a) hunger strike (b) Drafting a Constitution for France which limited the king’s power
(c) Declaring a revolt (d) Making an appeal to support the king in times of need

Q.63. Who led the representatives of the Third Estate in Versailles on 20th June?
(a) Mirabeau (b) Abbe Sieyes (c) Louis XVI (d) Both a and b

Q.64.What did Louis XVI do, seeing the power of his revolting subjects?
(a) He accorded recognition to the National Assembly (b) Accepted checks on his powers
(c) Ordered his army to crush the revolt (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.65.Which of these provisions were passed by the Assembly on the night of 4 August, 1789?
(a) Abolition of feudal system of obligations (b) Clergy had to give up its privileges
(c) Tithes were abolished (d) All the above

Q.66.The new Constitution made France a
(a) Constitutional Monarchy (b) Communist state
(c) Fully democratic state (d) none of the above

Q.67. According to the new constitution of 1791, the National Assembly was to be
(a) Elected directly (b) appointed by the king(c) elected indirectly (d) a hereditary body

Q.68.Which of these people were entitled to vote?
(a) Only men above 25 years of age (b) Men and women above 30 years of age
(c) Men who paid taxes equal to at least 3 days of a labourer’s wage (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.69.Which of these rights were not established as ‘natural and inalienable’ rights by the constitution of 1791?
(a) Right to life (b) Freedom of speech and opinion(c) Equality before the law (d) All the above

Q.70. which of these provisions form a part of the ‘Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen’?
(a) Men are born free (b) They are equal in rights before the law
(c) Liberty means powers to do what is not injurious to others (d) All the above
Q.71.Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social change?
(a) Nationalists (b) conservatives (c) liberals (d) radicals

Q.72.The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in Europe
(In 1815) were called:
(a) Nationalists (b) liberals (c) revolutionaries (d) radicals

Q.73.Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French Revolution?
(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.
(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.
(c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society.
(d) All the above

Q.74.The majority religion of Russia was ___________ but the empire also included _________
(a) Russian Orthodox Church, grown out of Greek Orthodox Church
(b) Russian Orthodox Church
(c) Catholics, Protestants, Muslims and Buddhists
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Q.75.Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?
(a) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra (b) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin
(c) The huge cost of fighting in the World War I (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.76Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Socialists till 1914?
(a) They helped various associations to win seats in the parliaments in Europe
(b) Socialists, supported by strong figures in parliamentary politics, shaped and influenced legislation
(c) They succeeded in forming a government in Europe
(d) Governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals

Q.77.How can you say that the ‘liberals’ were not ‘democrats’?
(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise (b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote (d) All the above

Q.78.Which of the following statements is not correct about the ‘radicals’?
(a) They supported women’s right to vote
(b) They opposed the privileges of great landowners
(c) They were completely against the existence of private property
(d) They wanted a government based on the majority of a country’s population

Q.79.What kind of developments took place as a result of new political trends in Europe?
(a) Industrial Revolution occurred (b) New cities came up (c) Railways expanded (d) All the above

Q.80. By the mid-19th century in Europe, the idea which attracted widespread attention on the restructuring of
society was
(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c) Dictatorship (d) None

Q.81. Who conspired in Italy to bring about a revolution?
(a) Bismarck (b) Karl Marx (c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) None

Q.82. When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party formed in Russia?
(a) 1898 (b) 1900 (c) 1905 (d) 1910

Q.83What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a strike?
(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours (b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions (d) All the above

Q.84.Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
(a) Because it was incapable of taking good decisions (b)Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority
(c) The term of first Duma was of 75 days only (d) None of the above

Q.85.In the World War I, which started in 1914, Russia fought against
(a) Britain and France (b) Germany and Austria (c) America (d) All the above

Q.86.What was the position of Russia’s army in Germany and Austria between 1914 and 1916?
(a) Russian army brought a lot of destruction in Germany and Austria. (b) It killed a large member of people and
was victorious (c) Russian army lost badly (d) None of the above

Q.87.Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) By 1916, railway lines in Russia began to break down
(b) There were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down
(c) Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army
(d) All the above

Q.88. Why did a lockout take place at a factory on the right bank of the River Neva on 22 February, 1917?
(a) It was extremely cold for the workers to work, because of frost and heavy snow
(b) The workers were being forced to join the army
(c) Food shortages were deeply felt in the workers’ quarters situated on the left bank of theRiver Neva
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.89. On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council called
(a) Soviet Council (b) Petrograd Soviet (c) Moscow Union (d) Russian Council

Q.90.When did the Tsar abdicate the throne?
(a) 28 February, 1917 (b) 2 March, 1917 (c) 10 April, 1917 (d) 15 May, 1918

Q.91.Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenin’s 'April Theses'?
(a) World War I should be brought to an end (b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
(c) Banks should be nationalised (d) All the above

Q.92. Why was most of the Bolshevik Party members initially surprised by ‘April Theses’?
(a) They wanted continuation of World War I (b) They thought that time was not ripe for a socialist revolution
(c) Government needed to be supported at this time (d) All the above

Q.93. Who led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution?
(a) Karl Marx (b) Friedrich Engels (c) Vladimir Lenin (d) Trotsky

Q.94. Who started ‘Collectivisation Programme’ in Russia?
(a) Lenin (b) Karl Marx (c) Rasputin (d) Stalin

Q.95. Socialists took over the government in Russia through the?
(a) October Revolution in 1917 (b) November Revolution in 1918
(c) December Revolution in 1919 (d) February Revolution in 1920

Q.96. After 1905, most committees and trade unions were:
(a) Declared illegal (b) declared legal (c) active (d) none of the above

Q.97. At the beginning of the 20th century, the majority of Russian people worked in the:
(a) Industrial sector (b) Agricultural sector (c) Mining sector (d) Transport sector

Q.98.In the Russian Civil War the Bolsheviks and the socialist revolutionaries were represented by which of the
following colours?
(a) Whites and Reds (b) Greens and Whites (c) Reds and Greens (d) None of these

Q.99.The commune of farmers was known as:
(a) Tsar (b) Duma (c) Mir (d) Cossacks

Q.100. Who led the procession of workers to the event ‘Bloody Sunday’ in Russia?

(a) Lenin (b) Stalin (c) Kerenski (d) Father Gapon

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