Follow by Email

Advertisment

February 11, 2017

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE OBJECTIVE QUESTION USEFUL FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATION - TEST 5



1.    Oxygen released in the process of photosynthesis comes from
a.    water
b.    oxygen
c.    carbon dioxide
d.    nitrogen dioxide
2.    Phloem tissue is found in
a.    liver
b.    placenta
c.    plants
d.    none of these
3.    Plant bends towards the source of light on account of the movement known as
a.    geotropism
b.    hydrotropism
c.    chemotropism
d.    phototropism
4.    Animal lacks
a.    starch
b.    cellulose
c.    protein
d.    lipids
5.    On which of the following plants did Gregor Mendal perform his classical experiment
a.    corn
b.    mustard
c.    pea
d.    sunflower
6.    Among the biotic components of the ecosystem, the producer system is
a.    carnivores
b.    herbivores
c.    plants
d.    animals
7.    Breeding and management of bees is known
a.    agriculture
b.    sericulture
c.    horticulture
d.    apiculture
8.    Study of fossils is called
a.    psychology
b.    paleontology


c.    biodiversity
d.    haematology
9.    Which is an example of fungi
a.    paramecium
b.    euglena
c.    penicillium
d.    octopus
10.    The scientific name of human is
a.    Homo sapiens
b.    Homo habiscus
c.    Oriza sativa
d.    none of these
11.    Thread like structures in fungi are called
a.    mycelium
b.    hyphae
c.    sporangium
d.    spores
12.    The smallest bacteria on earth is
a.    mycoplasma
b.    E.coli
c.    salmonella
d.    clostridium
13.    Vaccine for rabies was developed by
a.    Robert Koch
b.    Robert Brown
c.    Pasteur
d.    none of these
14.    Malaria is caused by
a.    mosquito
b.    plasmodium
c.    virus
d.    bacteria
15.    Hepatitis is inflammation of
a.    stomach
b.    kidney
c.    lungs
d.    liver
16.    Penicillin is obtained from



a.    soil
b.    bacteria
c.    fungi
d.    virus
17. Which    one is endoparasite
a.    lice
b.    ticks
c.    virus
d.    tape worm
18. Fructose is
a.    pentose sugar
b.    hexose sugar
c.    heptose sugar
d.    none of these
19. Peptide bond is a
a.    C-N link
b.    N-H link
c.    C-O link
d.    N-O link
20. Which is correct about enzymes
a.    protein in nature
b.    speed up reaction
c.    denature at high temperature
d.    all of these

21. What is the sum of the sequence: 10, 20, 30,
a.    50,000
b.    50,250
c.    50,500
d.    50,750



1000 ?

22. What is the sum of the sequence: 1, 10, 100, 1000, ... 1,000,000,000 ?
a.    11,111,111,11
b.    11,111,111,90
c.    99,999,999,11
d.    99,999,999,99
23.What is the solution interval of the inequality 6x-2>3x + 10
A.    («,4)
B.    (-",4]
C.    (-4,-)
D.    [4~)



24.What is the value of x in the equation
-^flOx-4-X = Q
A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    6
25.The price (in cents) of one orange is 5c. What is the price (in dollars) of one dozen of oranges?
26.At present age of Alice is x-10 years. What will be her age after 10 years?
A.    x+2
B.    x-2
C.    x+12
D.    x-12
27. Mr. A can do a particular work in 6 hours, and Mr. B can do the same work in 14 hours. How much time it will take if they do the work together?
A.    4 hours and 6 minutes
B.    4 hours and 12 minutes
C.    4 hours and 18 minutes
D.    4 hours and 24 minutes
28.The greatest philosopher and preacher of Saiva sect was– (A) Jnaneshwar (B) Shankaracharya (C) Ramanuj (D) Vallabhacharya
29. The grand temples of Khajuraho were built by the rulers of– (A) Solanki dynasty of Gujarat (B) Parmar dynasty of Malwa (C) Chandelas of Bundelkhand (D) Chauhan of Ajmer


30.    The main cause of Timurs' invasion of India was–
(A) His excessive zeal for Islam (B) Victory and plunder
(C) Extension of empire (D) Liberal religious policy of the Sultan of Delhi :
31.    The Pope called upon the Christians to fight Crusades against Turks because he–
(A)    Wanted to extend his influence in Europe
(B)    Wanted to check the expansion of Turkish Empire
(C)    Wanted top liberate Jerusalem, a sacred place of Christians from the occupation of Turks
(D)    Wanted to forge unity among the divided Christian rulers
32.    Under whose leadership the Jats revolted against Aurangzeb ?
(A) Raja Ram (B) Gokul
(C) Churaman (D) Surajmal
33.    The First President of America was–
(A) George Washington (B) Abraham Lincoln (C) Wilson (D) Roosevelt
34.    The French revolution was more important than that of America and England because–
(A) It came out from the middle classes (B) It ended the monarchism
(C) It affected all countries of Europe (D) It established Socialism in Europe
35.    The name of the thinker who propounded the idea of separation of powers was–
(A) Diderot (B) Montesque
(C) Voltaire (D) Rousseau
36.    The person who was held responsible for the reign of terror during French revolution
named–
(A) Robeespierre (B) Danton (C) Voltaire (D) Mirabeau
37.    The Industrial Revolution started from England because–
(A)    England was a rich country
(B)    The people of England were inventive mind
(C)    The Rulers encourage industries
(D)    England was geographically well suited as raw material like coal and iron was available in abundance


38.    The fundamental principles of Indian foreign policy is based on–
(A) Non-allianment (B) Imperialism
(C) Military Treaty (D) Political Alliances
39.    The Azad Hind Fauz was organised by– (A) Bhagat Singh (B) Subhash Chandra Bose (C) Maharaj Mahendra Pratap (D) C.R. Dass
40.    The United Nation Organisation differs from the League of Nations in the way that–

(A)    The United Nations is an International body and the League of Nations was limited Europe
(B)    The United Nations works with the cooperation of all country members while the League of Nations was under the control of the few
(C)    The United Nations is not a part of an international treaty whereas League of Nations was
(D)    The range of the United Nations is wider than that of the League of Nations
41. Which of the following is the most powerful in U.N.O. ? (A) General Assembly (B) Security Council (C) Secretriat (D) International Court
42.    26th Jan., 1950 is important in History of India because–
(A)    India got independence
(B)    Mahatma Gandhi died
(C)    New constitution of Free India was introduced and India became a Sovereign Republic
(D)    The Indian States were merged
43.    Who was the ruler of Delhi when Ibn Battutah visited India?
(A) Ibrahim Lodhi (B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Muhammad bin Tughlaq (D) Sultan Raziya
44. 1857 is famous in Indian history as–
(A)    The first Indian War of Independence
(B)    A year of unusual prosperity
(C)    The starting point of industrialisation in the country
(D)    The culminating point of the Bengal renaissance
45. Which one of the following Acts brought about the abolition of the rule of East India
Company?
(A) Act of 1793 (B) Act of 1813
(C) Act of 1833 (D) Act of 1858


46. The demand for a separate State of Pakistan was made on the basis of 'two nation' theory at the Lahore Session of All Indian Muslim League held in–
(A)    1907 (C) 1937
(B)    1928 (D) 1940
47.    Which one of the following Sikh Gurus organised the Sikhs as soldiers to fight against the
Mughal Army?
(A) Guru Nanak (B) Guru Arjun Dev
(C) Guru Angada (D) Guru Govind Singh
48.    Bank of Hindustan is the oldest bank in India. When did it start functioning?
a)    1990
b)    1770
c)    1885
d)    1892
49.    The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
a)    Reserve Bank of India
b)    Imperial Bank of India
c)    Bank of India
d)    Union Bank of India
50.    When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
a)    1935
b)    1920
c)    1928
d)    1947
51.    When was the Imperial Bank of India nationalized to form the State Bank of India?
a)    1947
b)    1949
c)    1951
d)    1955
52.    The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
a)    1947
b)    1948
c)    1950
d)    1956


53.    What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
a)    National Bank
b)    Cooperative Bank
c)    Scheduled Bank
d)    Unscheduled Bank
54.    The Export-Import (EXIM) Bank was set up in
a)    1982
b)    1983
c)    1987
d)    1985
55.    Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
a)    Union Government
b)    Reserve Bank of India
c)    Ministry of Finance
d)    Supreme Court
56.    In India, coins and subsidiary coins are issued by
a)    Union Government
b)    Reserve Bank of India
c)    Ministry of Finance
d)    Supreme Court
57.    Which of the following is entrusted with the task of receiving all money on behalf of the
Government as also with the task of making payments on their behalf?
a)    State Bank of India
b)    Reserve Bank of India
c)    Ministry of Finance
d)    Union Parliament
58. When was the International Monetary Fund (IMF) established?
a)    1944
b)    1945
c)    1948
d)    1950
59). Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
a)    IDA
b)    IMF
c)    ADB
d)    IFC


60.    The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
a)    World Bank
b)    Asian Development Bank
c)    IMF
d)    It is known by its name
61.    Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to
the poorest developing countries?
a)    Asian Development Bank
b)    IMF
c)    International Developmental Association
d)    International Finance Corporation
62.    The International Finance Corporation (IFC) was established in?
a)    1956
b)    1972
c)    1985
d)    1960
63.    Where is the headquarters of Asian Development Bank (ADB) situated?
a)    Manila
b)    Delhi
c)    Bangkok
d)    Hong Kong
64.    Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries
by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
a)    Asian Development Bank
b)    IMF
c)    International Developmental Association
d)    International Finance Corporation
65.    Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
a)    Adam Smith
b)    Chanakya
c)    Machiavelli
d)    None of these
66.    When did India become a member of the IMF?
a)    1947
b)    1956
c)    1960
d)    1951


67.    Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
a)    1999
b)    1995
c)    2000
d)    2001
68.    When did the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) come into being?
a)    1973
b)    1975
c)    1980
d)    1981
69.    When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?
a)    1975
b)    1947
c)    1956
d)    1960
70.    In India, income tax is levied by
a)    Union Government
b)    State Governments
c)    Ministry of Finance
d)    RBI
71.Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
a)    Reserve Bank of India
b)    State Bank of India
c)    ICICI Bank
d)    Bank of India
72.What was the number of the princely states in India at the time of partition ?
(A)    555
(B)    558
(C)    560
(D)    562
73. Which of the following is true for the Indian judicial system ?
(A)    It is controlled by the Parliament
(B)    The Supreme Court of India is controlled by the Parliament and the High Courts are controlled by the State Legislative Assemblies
(C)    It is an independent institution
(D)    None of the above


74.    Who is the 43th Chief Justice of India ?
(A)J S keher
(B)    Y. K. Sabharwal
(C)    H. L. Dattu
(D)    T. S. Thakur
75.    The Finance Commission is constituted under arti-0cle .……      of the constitution of
India.
(A)    275
(B)    280
(C)    282
(D)    None of the above
76.    In which general election did the Congress Party lose majority in the Parliament for the
first time ?
(A)    1967
(B)    1977
(C)    1980
(D)    None of the above
77.    Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1976
?
(A)    V. V. Giri
(B)    Giani Zail Singh
(C)    Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(D)    Shankar Dayal Sharma
78.    Assertion (A) : The number of the members of the Union Public Service Commission is
prescribed in the constitution of India.
Reason (R) : The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India. Codes :
(A)    Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)    Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)    A is true but R is false
(D)    A is false but R is true
79.    Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A)    The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years
(B)    The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
(C)    The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor talkes over
(D)    The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election the Vice-President of India


80.    Consider the following statements :
1.    A money bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2.    The Council of States cannot reject a money bill nor amend it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
81.    Which one of the following is not a parliamentary committee ?
(A)    Demands for grants committee
(B)    Committee on public accounts
(C)    Committee on public under takings
(D)    Committee on estimates
82.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of union territories of India in the
increasing order of there area ?
(A)    Puducherry – Lakshadweep – Chandigarh – Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B)    Lakshadweep – Chandigarh – Andaman and Nicobar Islands – Puducherry
(C)    Lakshadweep – Chandigarh Puducherry – Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(D)    Puducherry – Chandigarh Andaman and Nicobar Islands – Lakshadweep
83.    What was the scheme to reduce interest burden of the state Government of India through
gradual conversion of high cost debt into a low cost debt known as ?
(A)    Debt – swap scheme
(B)    Debt – write off scheme
(C)    Grants–in–aid scheme
(D)    Debt consolidation scheme
84.    Which one of the following states/Uts of the country has more than fifty per cent tribal
population of the total population ?
(A)    Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(B)    Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(C)    Himachal Pradesh
(D)    Puducherry
85.    The objective of the Eklavya Model Residential Schools is to provide quality education to
which of the following ?
(A)    Scheduled caste students
(B)    Tribal students
(C)    Orphan girl students
(D)    Unorganized women labour


86.    Under which article of the Constitution of India can the President of India be impeached ?
(A)    Article 61
(B)    Article 75
(C)    Article 76
(D)    Article 356
87.    Assertion (A) : The council of ministers in the union of India is collectively responsible both
to Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the
ministers of the Union Government.
Codes :(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B)    Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C)    A is true but R is false
(D)    A is false but R is true
88.    Consider the following statements :
1.    The judges (inquiry) bill 2006 contemplates to establish a judicial council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.
2.    Under the protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 a woman can file a petition before a Ist class judicial magistrate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
89.    Which of the following constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of
Ministers at the centre and in a state must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of
members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of
that state respectively ?
(A)    91st
(B)    93rd
(C)    95th
(D)    97th
90.    Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of
the Constitution of India :
1.    A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2.    If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue direction for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.


Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
91.    Who was the speaker of the first Lok-Sabha ?
(A)    Hukam Singh
(B)    G. V. Mavalankar
(C)    K. M. Munshi
(D)    U. N. Dhebar
92.    Consider the following statements :
1.    The mode of removal of a judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.
2.    After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court can not plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A)    1 only
(B)    2 only
(C)    Both 1 and 2
(D)    Neither 1 nor 2
93.    Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the
following as full states of the Indian Union ?
(A)    Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana
(B)    Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh
(C)    Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh
(D)    Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – Haryana
94.    Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in—
(A)    High Court alone
(B)    Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(C)    All courts down to the District Courts
(D)    None of these
95.    What are the residuary powers ?
(A)    Powers which are enumerated in the state list
(B)    Powers which are included in the state list
(C)    Powers which are enumerated in the concurrent list
(D)    Powers which are not mentioned in any of the lists
96.    ‘Diet’ is the name of the Parliament of which Nation ?
(A)    China
(B)    Japan


(C)    Vietnam
(D)    Germany
97.    Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(A)    Right to equality
(B)    Right to property
(C)    Right to freedom
(D)    Right to constitutional remedies
98.    The Fundamental Rights in our Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of—
(A)    United States of America
(B)    United Kingdom
(C)    Switzerland
(D)    Canada
99.    Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian
secularism as ‘Sarve Dharma Samabhav’ ?
(A)    Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B)    Dr. Jakir Hussain
(C)    Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D)    Giani Zail Singh
100.    How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the president ?
(A)    Five
(B)    Twelve
(C)    One-fifth of the total members
(D)    Ten
101.    Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice
in any form ?
(A)    Article 16
(B)    Article 17
(C)    Article 18
(D)    Article 15
102.The three leading petroleum producing countries in correct descending order are:
(A)    Saudi Arabia, U.S.(A) and Russia
(B)    U.S.(A), Saudi Arabia and Iran
(C)    Saudi Arabia, U.S.(A) and Iran
(D)    U.S.(A), Saudi Arabia and Mexico


103. When a river course follows the real and basic slope it is called: (A) Consequent stream
(B)    Subsequent stream
(C)    Resequent stream
(D)    Obsequent stream
104.    With biotic succession in a lake environment the population and diversity of plants and
animals:
(A)    Increases
(B)    Decreases
(C)    Neither (A) no1 (B)
(D)    First decreases and then increases
105.    The river which marks the international boundary between India and Nepal is:
(A)    The Gandak
(B)    Tista

(C)    Kosi
(D)    Kali
106.    Which one of the following is most suitable diagram for representing the age-sex
structure of the population?
(A)    Dot method
(B)    Triangular graph
(C)    Pie diagram
(D)    Pyramid diagram
107. The ‘Blue Revolution’ has been most successful in:
(A)    Andhra Pradesh
(B)    Bihar
(C)    West Bengal.
(D)    Kerala
108. The ideal location of a thermal power station will be:
(A)    Close to water bodies
(B)    Near heavy industrial area
(C)    Near coal-pit head
(D)    Near power-deficit area
109. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? (A) Natural Bridge – Karst topography


(B) Yardang – Arid topography (C) Cliff – Costal topography (D) Tafoni – Landform – Volcanic topography
110.    Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(A)    Oman – Ashgabat
(B)    Qatar – Doha
(C)    Yemen – Muscat
(D)    Vietnam – Vientiane
111.    Out of following the least variability of rainfall in India is observed in:
(A)    Gujarat
(B)    Telangana
(C)    Assam
(D)    Tamil Nadu
112.    In an earthquake maximum surface damage is caused by:
(A)    L Waves
(B)    P Waves
(C)    S Waves
(D)    T Waves
113.    In which of the following continents both birth rate and death rate are the least?
(A)    Europe
(B)    Australia
(C)    North America
(D)    South America .
114.    Which one of the following is an a biotic element of ecosystem?
(A)    Rock salt
(B)    Lichen
(C)    Termite
(D)    Algae
115.    Which one of the following set of crops is related to the plantation agriculture?
(A)    Rice, Wheat and Sugarcane
(B)    Cotton, Jute and Oilseeds
(C)    Maize, Millets and Mustard
(D)    Tea, Coffee and Rubber
116.    The main soil of Rajmahal Hills is:
(A)    Red
(B)    Black


(C)    Alluvial
(D)    Laterite
117. The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone during the South West Monsoon Season in India Swifts:
(A)    Westward
(C)    Northward
(B)    Eastward
(D)    Southward
118. Madhya Pradesh is the leading producer of cement in India because:
(A)    Hydro electricity is available sufficiently
(B)    It was ample limestone deposits
(C)    Water resource is available through rivers
(D)    Transport system is well developed

119. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II           
(A) Basalt        (i) Gniss
(B) Granite        (ii) Quii’t zite
(C) Sandstone    (iii) Schist
(D) Shale        (iv)    Slate
Codes:           
a                    b    c    d   
(A)              (ii)    (i)    (iv)    (iii)
(B)       (i)    (ii)    (iii)    (iv)
(C)       (iii)    (i)    (ii)    (iv)
(D)              (iv)    (ii)    (i)    (iii)
120.    In India mineral oil is derived from the rocks of the:
(A)    Gondwana period
(B)    Cretaceous period
(C)    Permian period
(D)    Tertiary period
121.    Which one of the following causes acid rain?
(A)    Carbon dioxide
(B)    Chiorofluoro carbon
(C)    Sulphur dioxide
(D)    Hydro carbon


122.    Which one of the following mountain ranges does not emerge from the Pamir Knot?
(A)    Hindukush
(B)    Tienshan
(C)    Kunlun
(D)    Zagros
123.    Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Steel plants    Technical collaboration
(A)    Rourkela    Germany
(B)    Bhilai    U.S.S.R.
(C)    Durgapur    United Kingdom.
(D)    Bokaro    U.S.A
124. Which one of the following is related to famous Montreal Protocol of 1987?
(A)    Reduction in the production and consumption of mineral oil
(B)    Reduction in the producti.5n of carbon
(C)    Reduction in the production and consumption of chlorofluoro carbons ((C) F.(C))
(D)    Reduction in the, production of nitrogen oxides
125.Who has won the 2016 Women’s Singles Wimbledon Championship?
[A]    Simona Halep
[B]    Serena Williams
[C]    Angelique Kerber
[D]    Andy Murray
126. Who was the most expensive player at the pro kabbadi auctions 2016?
[A]    Anup Kumar
[B]    Sandeep Narwal
[C]    Mohit Chillar
[D]    Jang Kun Lee
127. Which of the following country was declared free from Ebola virus transmission by THE World Health Organization?
A - Guinea
B - Mexico
C - Belgium
D - Britain


128    . The Union Government will invest about      rupees in augmenting highway
infrastructure in Uttar Pradesh?
A - 75,000 crores
B - 25,000 crores
C - 750 crores
D - 1 million
129    . The theme for the World Environment Day was decided as      ?
A - Say no to wildlife trading
B - No tolerance for the illegal trade in wildlife C - Zero tolerance for the illegal trade in wildlife D - Clean world, clean jungle
130    - The Government of India and the Asian Development Bank (ADB) signed a $120 million
loan agreement to improve irrigation and water management infrastructure in state
     .
A - Odisha
B - Andhra Pradesh
C - Bihar
D - Uttar Pradesh
131    - Malabar 2016 is a joint naval exercise between which of the following countries?
A - India, the United States and Japan
B - Japan and India C - India and US D - Japan and US
132 - Shaminda Eranga, who was recently suspended by ICC, after an assessment of his illegal
bowling action, is a player of country      .
A - Sri Lanka


B - England
C - Bangladesh
D - India
133    - The Nepal Government has banned its citizens from working in which of the following
countries      ?
A - Afghanistan
B - Iraq
C - Syria and Libya
D - All of these
134    - The Mobile application that was launched to enhance consumer connect with Urban
Power Distribution sector is      .
A - URJA
B - VIDYUT AABHA
C - URJA-UJJALA
D – UJWALA
135    - ‘Ganges-Danube Cultural Festival of India’ was celebrated in country      ?
A - Hungary B - Britain C - Belgium D – None
136    - According to the World Investment Report released by UNCTAD, India ranks ____ in FDI
inflows.
A - 10th


B - 1st C - 12th
D  -  8th
137    - Which of the following is true regarding Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan,
launched by government of India?
A - applicable only to the women in their pregnancy period of 3 to 9 months
B - free health check-up for poor pregnant women
C - applicable only to the women in their pregnancy period of 3 to 6 months
D - Only b and c
138    - Which of the following train was inaugurated by the Indian Railway minister on the
occasion of the World Environment Day?
A - Tiger Express train
B - Cargo Express
C - Lion Express
D - Delhi-Safdarjung Express
139    - The Prime Minister outlined a five-point charter for tax administrators – R.A.P.I.D. It stands
for      ?
A - R for Rejuvenile, A for Accounts, P for Probablity, I for Information and D for Digitization
B - R for Revenue, A for Accountability, P for Probity, I for Information and D for Digitization
C - R for Revenue, A for Accuracy, P for Probity, I for Information and D for Digital
D - R for Revenue, A for Accountability, P for Probity, I for Income tax and D for Digitization
140- Maria Sharapova, who has been banned for two years for failing a drugs test, is a
     player?
A - Tennis


B - Soccer C - Chess D – Football
141.    Bihar is the 13th-largest state of India, with an area of 94,163 km2 (36,357 sq mi)
a.    36,357 sq mi
b.    46,357 sq mi
c.    56,357 sq mi
d.    66,357 sq mi
142.    Bihar and Bengal was invaded by         of the   in the 11th century.
a.rajendra raj chola 1
b.auranjeb
c.babar
d.shershah suri
143.what is the female literacy rate of bihar?
a.53.35
b.65.89
c.51.78
d.46.67 144.bihar stands at which position in HDI rank in the country?
a.11th
b.24th
c.16th
d.18th
145. In the      and      regions of Bihar, the Kisan Sabha (peasant movement) was an
important consequence of the independence movement.
a.    northern , central
b.    western, central
c.    northern , western
d.    southern , central
146.the formation of all india kisan sabha in 1936 culminated in the congress session of
a.mumbai
b gaya
c lukhnow
d.belgaon


147. Bihar has notified forest area of 6,764.14 km2 (2,612 sq mi), which is      percent of total
area ?
a.8.2
b.5.6
c.4.3
d.7.2
148.which part of bihar faces drought almost all the year ?
a.south b.north c.west d.east
149.which is the second official language of biahr?
a.magahi
b.bhojpuri
c.maithili
d.urdu
150.which river is called sorrow of bihar?
a.budhi gandak
b.kamla balan
c.ganga
d.kosi

No comments:

Post a Comment